[PDF] Sat Practice Test 10 Answers.pdf | Plain Text

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PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 374 QUESTION 3 Choice D is the best answer. In the first paragraph, Miss Spivey remarks that the heat in Georgia is nothing compared to the heat she experienced in Timbuktu. Later in this paragraph the narrator states, “I believe her remark irritated some of the people gathered to welcome her on the burned grass alongside the tracks. When folks are sweating through their shorts, they don’t like to hear that this is nothing compared to someplace else.” Hence it can reasonably be inferred from the passage that some of the people at the train station regard Miss Spivey’s comment about the Georgia heat with resentment because they feel that she is minimizing their discomfort. Choice A is incorrect because Miss Spivey informs the people at the train station that she has experienced even more extreme heat, so they wouldn’t have assumed that she is experiencing intense heat for the first time. Choice B is incorrect because the passage indicates that the people at the station know Miss Spivey is coming to Threestep to work, not that they doubt she will stay there very long. Choice C is incorrect because the passage doesn’t indicate that the people at the train station imagine that she is superior to them. QUESTION 4 Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what can be inferred from the passage about the reaction of the people at the train station to Miss Spivey’s comment about the Georgia heat. The answer, that it can be reasonably inferred from the passage that some of the people at the train station regard Miss Spivey’s comment about the Georgia heat with resentment because they feel that she’s minimizing their discomfort, is best supported in the first paragraph: “I believe her remark irritated some of the people gathered to welcome her on the burned grass alongside the tracks. When folks are sweating through their shorts, they don’t like to hear that this is nothing compared to someplace else.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they describe Miss Spivey’s appearance (choice A), reflect on why people viewed her arrival positively in spite of their irritation over her remark (choice C), and outline her education (choice D). QUESTION 5 Choice A is the best answer. In the second paragraph, Miss Spivey describes a break she took from her formal education as a “fruitful intermission.” She explains that she “traveled extensively in the Near East and Africa with a friend of her grandmother’s, one Janet Miller” during this time. Therefore, Miss Spivey most likely uses the phrase “fruitful intermission” to indicate that she benefited from taking time off from her studies to travel.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 375 Choice B is incorrect because Miss Spivey’s use of the phrase “fruitful intermission” doesn’t indicate that her travels with Janet Miller encouraged her to start medical school. Choice C is incorrect because Miss Spivey uses the phrase “fruitful intermission” to refer to a break in her formal education after boarding school, not during her early years there. Choice D is incorrect because Miss Spivey’s use of the phrase “fruitful intermission” doesn’t indicate that this break lasted longer than she had expected. QUESTION 6 Choice A is the best answer. In the second paragraph, Miss Spivey tells her class that she went to Barnard College in New York City, which prompts Ralphord to ask her what she studied at “Barnyard College.” In response, Miss Spivey explains that Barnard College “was the sister school of Columbia University, of which, she expected, we all had heard.” This interaction implies that, contrary to Miss Spivey’s expectations, the names of prestigious East Coast schools aren’t common knowledge among her pupils. Thus the interaction between Miss Spivey and Ralphord serves mainly to suggest that Miss Spivey has an exaggerated view of what information should be considered common knowledge. Choice B is incorrect because the interaction between Miss Spivey and Ralphord establishes an atmosphere of misunderstanding, not friendliness. Choice C is incorrect because Ralphord’s question demonstrates his naivety rather than his precociousness. Choice D is incorrect because the passage doesn’t suggest that Ralphord’s question is an attempt to amuse Miss Spivey. QUESTION 7 Choice D is the best answer. The third paragraph describes Miss Spivey as having “wandered,” or walked aimlessly, into a lecture by John Dewey. Following her interactions with the professor, Miss Spivey was inspired to work as an educator; consequently, she “marched,” or walked purposefully, to sign up for the Teacher’s College. Hence, by describing Miss Spivey as having “wandered” in the former situation and “marched” in the latter, the narrator is most likely suggesting that Miss Spivey’s initial encounter with Dewey’s ideas was somewhat accidental but ultimately motivated her to decisive action. Choices A and C are incorrect because the narrator’s description of Miss Spivey as having “wandered” into Dewey’s class and “marched” to sign up for the Teacher’s College suggests that her accidental encounter with him motivated her to begin studying to be a teacher, not that Dewey saw Miss Spivey as lacking confidence in her ability to teach (choice A) or that she was anxious to be in charge of her own classroom (choice C). Choice B is incorrect

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 376 because Miss Spivey didn’t express a desire to teach in the poorest, most remote corner of America until two years after talking with Dewey over coffee. QUESTION 8 Choice C is the best answer. According to the third paragraph, after two years at the Teacher’s College, Miss Spivey told a woman from the WPA that “she wanted to bring democracy and education to the poorest, darkest, most r emote and forgotten corner of America.” Consequently, “they sent her to Threestep, Georgia,” according to the fourth paragraph. Thus Miss Spivey ended up in Threestep as a direct result of talking with a woman at the WPA. Choices A and B are incorrect because Miss Spivey ended up in Threestep as a direct result of talking with a woman at the WPA , not as an immediat e consequence of her friendship with Janet Miller (choice A), or her decision to attend college in New York City (choice B). Choice D is incorrect because Miss Chandler is mentioned as Miss Spivey’s predecessor in Threestep, but Miss Spivey’s arrival in town doesn’t occur as a direct result of Miss Chandler’s retirement. QUESTION 9 Choice C is the best answer. The ninth paragraph describes the students’ reaction to Miss Spivey’s announcement that she had seen camels on her trip to Baghdad: “We all hung there for a minute, thinking hard, until Mavis Davis spoke up.” Mavis reminds the other students that camels appear in a story they are familiar with. Thus, when Miss Spivey announces that she had seen camels, the students’ reaction suggests that they are baffled. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because when Miss Spivey announces that she had seen camels, the students’ reaction suggests that they are baffled, not delighted (choice A), fascinated (choice B), or worried (choice D). QUESTION 10 Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what the students’ reaction suggests about them when Miss Spivey announces that she had seen camels. The answer, that their reaction suggests that they are baffled, is best supported in the ninth paragraph: “We all hung there for a minute, thinking hard, until Mavis Davis spoke up.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they describe Miss Spivey’s anticipation of a delighted or amazed response to her announcement that she had seen camels (choice A),

ANS wE R Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 377 relay Mavis’s reference to a story familiar to the students (choice C), and reflect on the subdued nature of Miss Spivey’s response to Mavis (choice D). QUESTION 11 Choice D is the best answer. Throughout the passage, the author contends that efforts to make driving more unpleasant can curtail the negative environmental effects of car use, such as the rapid growth of “energy-hungry subdivisions.” According to the second paragraph, “one of the few forces with a proven ability to slow the growth of suburban sprawl has been the ultimately finite tolerance of commuters for long, annoying commutes.” Consequently, according to the last paragraph, “from an environmental perspective, inconvenient travel is a worthy goal.” Thus the main purpose of the passage is to argue that one way to reduce the negative environmental effects of traffic is to make driving less agreeable. Choice A is incorrect because the author introduces the claim that efforts to reduce traffic actually increase traffic as a supporting point, not as the main purpose of the passage. Choice B is incorrect because, in the second paragraph, the author does dispute the environmental value of making car travel more convenient, but this isn’t the main purpose of the passage. Choice C is incorrect because the negative environmental consequences of car-focused development and suburban sprawl are supporting details of the passage, not its main purpose. QUESTION 12 Choice A is the best answer. In the first paragraph, the author states, “Building good transit isn’t a bad idea, but it can actually backfire if the new trains and buses merely clear space on highway lanes for those who would prefer to drive—a group that, historically, has included almost everyone with access to a car.” In this sentence, the author bases his claim about the unintended consequences of building public transit on the expectation that most people would prefer to drive a car than take trains and buses. Hence this sentence best supports the idea that the author assumes that, all things being equal, people would rather drive than take mass transit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best support for the idea that the author assumes that, all things being equal, people would rather drive than take mass transit. Instead, they argue that in order to have positive environmental effects, new transit options have to persuade a substantial number of people not to drive (choice B), contend that unpopular efforts to make driving less convenient are necessary to reduce driving (choice C), and connect increased commute times to a reduction in suburban sprawl (choice D).

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 378 QUESTION 13 Choice A is the best answer. The first paragraph states, “That means that a new transit system has to be backed up by something that impels complementary reductions in car use.” In other words, new public transportation initiatives need to be supported, or reinforced, by policies that reduce car use. Thus “backed up,” as used in the passage, most nearly means supported. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of the passage, “backed up” means supported, not copied (choice B), substituted (choice C), or jammed (choice D). QUESTION 14 Choice B is the best answer. In the first paragraph, the author introduces some proposals for reducing car traffic by making driving slower and less convenient. However, he also acknowledges that “those ideas are not popular.” Thus, in the first paragraph, the author concedes that his recommendations aren’t widely supported. Choice A is incorrect because, in the first paragraph, the author doesn’t indicate that his recommendations are costly to implement. Choice C is incorrect because the author concedes that his recommendations are unpopular with the general public, not strongly opposed by experts. Choice D is incorrect because the author suggests that his recommendations are environmentally beneficial in the long term, not environmentally harmful in the short term. QUESTION 15 Choice C is the best answer. In the second paragraph, the author argues that “if, in a misguided effort to do something of environmental value, municipalities take steps that make long-distance car commuting faster or more convenient . . . we actually make the sprawl problem worse.” That is, measures that make driving more convenient actually harm the environment because they encourage more people to live in suburban developments, which represents wasteful expansion in his view. Therefore, based on the passage, the author would most likely characterize many attempts to improve traffic as well intentioned but ultimately leading to environmental harm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the author doesn’t characterize attempts to improve traffic as doomed to fail due to drivers’ reluctance to change their behavior (choice A), as overestimating drivers’ tolerance of long commutes (choice B), or as viable only if they make driving more economical and productive (choice D).

ANS wE R Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 379 QUESTION 16 Choice C is the best answer. The previous question asks how the author would most likely characterize many attempts to improve traffic. The answer, that the author would most likely characterize such attempts as well intentioned but ultimately leading to environmental harm, is best supported in the second paragraph: “If, in a misguided effort to do something of environmental value, municipalities take steps that make long-distance car commuting faster or more convenient—by adding lanes, building bypasses, employing traffic-control measures that make it possible for existing roads to accommodate more cars with fewer delays, replacing tollbooths with radio-based systems that don’t require drivers even to slow down—we actually make the sprawl problem worse.” Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they assert that public transit improvements must be supported by measures to reduce car use (choice A), indicate that tolerance for long commutes has grown recently, but has a natural limit (choice B), and elaborate on why improvements in public transport can fail to decrease road use (choice D). QUESTION 17 Choice D is the best answer. The second paragraph discusses how efforts to make commuting more convenient can have the unintended consequence of encouraging people to live farther away from their jobs: “If you cut commuting time by 10 percent, people who now drive fifty miles each way to work can justify moving five miles farther out, because their travel time won’t change.” Therefore, according to the passage, reducing commuting time for drivers can have the effect of making drivers more willing to live farther from their places of employment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the passage doesn’t suggest that reducing commuting time can make drivers more productive employees (choice A), can cause mass transit to be extended farther into suburban areas (choice B), or can result in less government funding for mass transit (choice C). QUESTION 18 Choice C is the best answer. The last paragraph asserts, “No one ever promotes a transit scheme by arguing that it would make traveling less convenient.” In other words, nobody advocates, or pushes for, changes to the transportation system by arguing that they would make traveling less convenient. Thus “promotes,” as used in the passage, most nearly means advocates.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 380 Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the context of the passage, “promotes” means advocates, not upgrades (choice A), serves (choice B), or develops (choice D). QUESTION 19 Choice B is the best answer. Figure 1 presents data related to the effect of route capacity reduction on selected regions. In the row pertaining to Southampton city center, the number 5,316 appears under the heading “Vehicles per day on altered road” in the column that specifies “Before alteration.” Thus, according to figure 1, the number of vehicles that traveled on the altered road through Southampton city center per day before the route was altered is 5,316. Choice A is incorrect because 3,081 is the number of vehicles per day that traveled on the Southampton city center road after it was altered, not before. Choice C is incorrect because 24,101 is the number of vehicles per day that traveled on roads surrounding the Southampton city center road after it was altered. Choice D is incorrect because 26,522 is the number of vehicles that traveled on roads surrounding the Southampton city center road before it was altered. QUESTION 20 Choice B is the best answer. In the first paragraph, the author of the passage argues that “to have environmental value . . . a new transit system has to be backed up by something that impels complementary reductions in car use—say, the physical elimination of traffic lanes.” According to figure 1, reducing route capacity resulted in a net reduction in regional traffic in all five areas studied. Therefore, the data in figure 1 support the author’s argument because the data show that reducing road capacity can lead to a net reduction in traffic. Choice A is incorrect. Figure 1 data support the author’s argument that route capacity reduction results in a reduction of car use, but the figure doesn’t provide data relating to the “induced traffic” phenomenon. Choices C and D are incorrect because figure 1 data support, not weaken, the author’s argument that route capacity reduction such as elimination of traffic lanes results in reduction of traffic. QUESTION 21 Choice D is the best answer. Figure 2 presents data related to an opinion poll of transportation engineers. According to the y-axis label, the engineers were asked whether a significant road space reallocation could result in people changing various aspects of their driving. The graph shows four different answer possibilities: “yes,” “yes (in exceptional circumstances),” “no,” and “don’t know.” The question asks for the aspect of driver behavior that the engineers surveyed thought was least likely to change in the event of a reallocation of road space according to figure 2: when they travel,

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 381 their means of traveling, how often they make a journey, or their driving style. Of these four choices, “their driving style,” received the smallest percentage of “yes” and “yes (in exceptional circumstances)” responses and the largest percentage of “no” responses. Hence, based on figure 2, the engineers surveyed were most skeptical of the idea that, in the event of a reallocation of road space, drivers would change their driving style. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because, according to figure 2, when the engineers were asked whether they thought that drivers would change when they travel (choice A), their means of traveling (choice B), or how often they make a journey (choice C) in the event of a significant road space reallocation, they gave more “yes” or “yes (in exceptional circumstances)” answers, and fewer “no” answers than they gave in response to the question of whether they thought drivers would change their driving style. Thus the engineers were less skeptical of these potential changes than they were of the idea that drivers would change their driving style in the event of a significant road space reallocation. QUESTION 22 Choice D is the best answer. The first paragraph asserts that textbook authors in the early 1990s believed that “sensations of pressure and vibration . . . tr avel only along myelinated, fast-signaling nerve fibers.” Thus, based on the passage, textbook authors in the early 1990s would most likely have expected that the ability to perceive vibrations would be impair ed as a result of blocking fast fibers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the passage indicates that textbook authors in the early 1990s believed blocking fast nerve fibers w ould impair sensations of vibration, not that blocking would increase the firing rate of other fibers (choice A), cause gentle stimuli to be perceived as painful (choice B), or make the body compensate by using slow fibers to sense pressure (choice C). QUESTION 23 Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what condition textbook authors in the early 1990s would most likely have expect ed to result from blocking fast fibers. The answer, that they would most likely have expected blocking fast fibers to result in an impairment of the ability to perceive vibrations, is best supported in the first paragraph, which refers to the views of textbook authors in the early 1990s: “Sensations of pressure and vibration were believed to travel only along myelinated, fast-signaling nerve fibers, which also give information about location.” Choices A, C, and D are incorr ect because the cited lines don’t provide the best e vidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they assert that textbook authors in the early 1990s believed

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 382 slow-conducting nerves responded only to pain and temperature stimuli (choice A), noted that blocking slow fibers only seemed to reduce sensitivity to warmth or small painful shocks (choice C), and knew that fast-conducting fibers responded to touch at a signal rate of 35 to 75 m/s (choice D). QUESTION 24 Choice A is the best answer. The second paragraph states, “Håkan Olausson and his Gothenburg University colleagues Åke Vallbo and Johan Wessberg wondered if slow fibers responsive to gentle pressure might be active in humans as well as in other mammals.” In other words, the researchers wondered if these nerves were present, or existent, in humans and other mammals. Therefore, in the context of the passage, the word “active” most nearly means present. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of the passage, “active” most nearly means present, not attentive (choice B), movable (choice C), or restless (choice D). QUESTION 25 Choice C is the best answer. The second paragraph states, “Using a technique called microneurography, in which a fine filament is inserted into a single nerve to capture its electrical impulses, the scientists were able to measure how quickly—or slowly—the nerves fired.” In other words, the researchers used the technique known as microneurography to record, or register, the electrical signals sent by nerve fibers. Therefore, in the context of the passage, the word “capture” most nearly means record. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the context of the passage, “capture” most nearly means record, not occupy (choice A), seize (choice B), or influence (choice D). QUESTION 26 Choice C is the best answer. According to the passage, different types of nerve fibers carry signals at different speeds, either fast or slow. The second paragraph outlines a study led by Håkan Olausson in 1993 that measured the response time of nerves when exposed to gentle pressure. Olausson and his team found that “soft stroking prompted two different signals” in test subjects’ nerve fibers, “one immediate and one delayed.” Therefore, the conclusion that is best supported by the findings of Olausson’s 1993 experiment is that gentle pressure is sensed not only by fast fibers but also by slow fibers. Choices A and D are incorrect because according to the passage, Olausson’s 1993 study didn’t compare how signal speed was affected by stimulation in different bodily areas (choice A) or by different

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 383 amounts of pressure applied to the nerve (choice D). Choice B is incorrect because the passage notes that only human hairy skin contains slow nerve fibers, not that hair causes signal speeds to slow. QUESTION 27 Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks which conclusion is best supported by the findings of Olausson’s 1993 experiment. The answer, that Olausson’s 1993 experiment best supports the conclusion that gentle pressure is sensed not only by fast fibers but also by slow fibers, is best supported in the second paragraph: Olausson’s team “showed that soft stroking prompted two different signals, one immediate and one delayed.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they describe a technique used by Olausson’s team (choice A), quantify the amount of time between the fast signals and the slow signals observed by Olausson’s team (choice C), and introduce a further study conducted by Olausson’s team in 1999 (choice D). QUESTION 28 Choice D is the best answer. This sentence from the fourth paragraph outlines a quandary that arose from the 1999 study conducted by Olausson’s team: “But why exactly humans might have such fibers, which respond only to a narrow range of rather subtle stimuli, was initially mystifying.” The passage presents this line of inquiry as a justification for the team’s subsequent research on CT fibers. Thus t his sentence serves mainly to show a problem from the perspective of Olausson’s team. Choices A, B, and C ar e incorrect. The cited lines serve mainly to show a problem from the perspective of Olausson’s team, not to identify factors Olausson had previously failed to consider (choice A), propose a solution to a dilemma encountered by Olausson (choice B), or anticipate a potential criticism of Olausson by the reader (choice C). QUESTION 29 Choice A is the best answer. According to the fifth paragraph, Olausson set out to discover, in his team’s 1999 research, whether a CT nerv e “can distinguish where the brush touches the arm, and whether it can discern the difference between a goat-hair brush and a feather. Most importantly, could that same fiber convey a pleasant sensation?” Therefore, it can reasonably be inferred that one of the intended goals of the 1999 experiment was to determine the precise nature of sensa tions that CT fibers can convey.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 384 Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in their 1999 research, Olausson’s team didn’t seek to determine the relationship between human body hair and CT fiber function (choice B), the role played by CT fibers in the perception of pain (choice C), or the effects of microneurography on CT fiber signaling (choice D). QUESTION 30 Choice D is the best answer. In the 1999 study, Olausson’s team conducted experiments on a patient known as G.L. The researchers wanted to learn more about what type of sensations slow-conducting CT nerve fibers transmit, and G.L. was of special interest to them, ac cording to the sixth paragraph: “More than 2 decades earlier . . . she had lost responsiveness to pressure, and a nerve biopsy confirmed that G.L.’s quick-conducting fibers were gone. . . . But she could still sense warmth, suggesting that her slow-conducting unmyelinated fibers were intact.” The fact that G.L.’s slow-conducting fibers were still intact while her other nerves were unresponsive allowed Olausson’s team to study her slow-conducting CT fibers in isolation. Thus the main purpose of the sixth paragraph is to indicate why G.L.’s medical condition was of value to Olausson’s experiment. Choices A, B, and C ar e incorrect because the sixth paragraph doesn’t indicate that Olausson’s team set out to relieve any of the neurological conditions that G.L. exhibited (choice A), compare G.L.’s nerve function with that of other adults (choice B), or detail any procedures that G.L. had experienced during previous experiments (choice C). QUESTION 31 Choice A is the best answer. According to the last paragraph, “in normal subjects, both the somatosensory and insular cortices were activated [by gentle brushing], but only the insular cortex [which processes emotion] was active when researchers brushed G.L.’s arm.” Therefore, according to the passage, G.L. differed from Olausson’s other test subjects in terms of the number of cortices activated in the brain during gentle brushing. Choice B is incorrect because the passage doesn’t address the physical dimensions of the somatosensory cortex in G.L. or other test subjects. Choice C is incorrect because G.L. differed from other test subjects in terms of the number of cortices activated in the brain during gentle brushing, not in terms of the intensity of nerve signals required to activate the insular cortex. Choice D is incorrect because MRI scanning is discussed in t he passage as a method used to locate brain activity, not as a focus of study in Olausson’s research.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 385 QUESTION 32 Choice B is the best answer. According to the last paragraph, Olausson’s 1999 research, in which CT fibers were stimulated, “solidified the notion that CT fibers convey a more emotional quality of touch.” Hence humans experience an emotional aspect of touch when CT fibers are exposed to a stimulus, according to the passage. Choice A is incorrect because the passage doesn’t indicate that humans experience an emotional aspect of touch when br ain cortices are shielded from nerve signals. Choice C is incorrect because the suppression of G.L.’s pain-sensing fibers did help Olausson study CT fibers in isolation and determine that they transmit an emotional aspect of touch, but the passag e doesn’t suggest that suppressing these fibers is what allows humans to experience this emotional aspect of touch. Choice D is incorrect because the passage indicates that CT fibers transmit an emotional aspect of touch rather than conscious aspects of sensation, not that humans must ignore the conscious aspects of sensation in order to experience the emotional aspects of touch. QUESTION 33 Choice C is the best answer. In the first paragraph of Passage 1, Beveridge portrays America as “a noble land that God has given us; a land that can feed and clothe the world; a land whose coast lines would enclose half the countries of Europe.” Thus, in Passage 1, Beveridge asserts that the resources and immensity of the United States constitute a divine gift to the American people. Choice A is incorrect because Beveridge envisions Americans occupying foreign lands, not being subject to foreign invasion; moreover, he asserts that the resources and immensity of the United States constitute a divine gift, not a safeguard against invasion. Choice B is incorrect because Beveridge asserts that American society constitutes an improvement on English society, not that the resources and immensity of the United States replicate conditions in Europe. Choice D is incorrect because Beveridge doesn’t assert that the resources and immensity of the United States constitute a source of envy for people in other countries. QUESTION 34 Choice B is the best answer. In the second paragraph of Passage 1, Beveridge commands his audience several times to think of a future in which American laws and customs have been extended to foreign countries, leading American citizens to move to those places. According to Beveridge, this will provide Hawaii and Puerto Rico with “justice and safety,” the Philippines with “order and equity,” and Cuba with a “civilization of energy and industry.” Thus, in the second paragraph of Passage 1, the commands given by Beveridge mainly serve to anticipate the benefits of a proposed policy.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 386 Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Beveridge’s commands serve to anticipate the benefits of a proposed foreign policy, not to remind the audience of its civic responsibilities (choice A), emphasize the urgency of a national problem (choice C), or refute an argument advanced by opponents (choice D). QUESTION 35 Choice B is the best answer. The fourth paragraph of Passage 2 asserts that “a truth once spoken can never be recalled. It goes on and on, and no one can set a limit to its ever-widening influence.” In other words, when a true idea has been introduced to the world, it can never be retracted, or taken back. Therefore, in the context of the passage, the word “recalled” most nearly means retracted. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of the passage, “recalled” most nearly means retracted, not repeated (choice A), rejected (choice C), or remembered (choice D). QUESTION 36 Choice D is the best answer. In the fourth paragraph of Passage 2, Bryan argues that the principle of self-rule set forth in the Declaration of Independence is, in fact, a value that all people instinctively aspire to. Indeed, for Bryan, “[God] never made a race of people so low in the scale of civilization or intelligence that it would welcome a foreign master.” Therefore, it can reasonably be inferred from Passage 2 that Bryan considers the preference for national sovereignty over foreign rule to be a manifestation of an innate drive in humans toward self-rule. Choices A and C are incorrect because it can reasonably be inferred that Bryan considers the preference for national sovereignty over foreign rule to be a manifestation of a universal drive in humans that’s independent of circumstances, not a reaction to the excesses of imperial governments in the modern era (choice A) or a testament to the effects of the foreign policy of the United States (choice C). Choice B is incorrect because Bryan indicates that a preference for self-rule is universal, not that belief in human equality is widespread. QUESTION 37 Choice C is the best answer. The previous question asks what can reasonably be inferred from Passage 2 about Bryan’s views on the preference for national sovereignty over foreign rule. The answer, that Bryan considers the preference to be a manifestation of an innate drive in humans toward self-rule, is best supported in the fourth paragraph of Passage 2: “[God] never made a race of people so low in the scale of civilization or intelligence that it would welcome a foreign master.”

ANS wE R Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 387 Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they indicate that explicitly promoting imperialism would run counter to the words of American founding father Patrick Henry (choice A), assert that once a truth is uttered, its influence will continually grow (choice B), and introduce the notion that, in Bryan’s view, an imperial project in the Philippines would hurt not only the people of that nation but also the people of the United States (choice D). QUESTION 38 Choice A is the best answer. The last paragraph of Passage 2 states, “Those who would have this Nation enter upon a career of empire must consider, not only the effect of imperialism on the Filipinos, but they must also calculate its effects upon our own nation.” In other words, proponents of imperial conquest must evaluate, or assess, the consequences of this policy for the United States. Therefore, in the context of the passage, the word “calculate” most nearly means evaluate. Choices B , C, and D are incorrect because in the context of the passage, “calculate” most nearly means evaluate, not design (choice B), assume (choice C), or multiply (choice D). QUESTION 39 Choice A is the best answer. In the first paragraph of Passage 1, Beveridge references the founding and history of the United States as “a glorious history” that was bestowed upon God’s “chosen people,” a history heroic with faith in its mission and future, and “statesmen, who flung the boundaries of the Republic out into unexplored lands.” Similarly, in the second paragraph of Passage 2, Bryan declares, “Our whole history has been an encouragement . . . to all who are denied a voice in their own government.” Bryan goes on to extol the virtues of several figures who were instrumental in the founding of the United States, including Thomas Jefferson and George Washington. Hence, in developing their respective arguments, Beveridge (Passage 1) and Bryan (Passage 2) both express admiration for the founding and history of the United States. Choice B is incorrect because neither Bryan, in Passage 1, nor Beveridge, in Passage 2, expresses admiration for the vibrancy and diversity of American culture. Choice C is incorrect because Bryan expresses admiration for the worldwide history of struggles for independence, but Beveridge doesn’t. Choice D is incorrect because Beveridge expresses admiration for the idealism that permeates many aspects of American society, but Bryan doesn’t.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 388 QUESTION 40 Choice B is the best answer. In the first paragraph of Passage 1, Beveridge argues that Americans are “imperial by virtue of their power” and are therefore justified in being “the propagandists . . . of liberty.” In the second paragraph, he extols the benefits that will arise from American administration of various island nations. Meanwhile, in the last sentence of Passage 2, Bryan cautions, “We cannot repudiate the principle of self-government in the Philippines without weakening that principle here”; in other words, imperial expansion by the United States would erode a key American value. Therefore, the difference between how the speakers view liberty as it is realized in the United States is that Beveridge considers it so exemplary as to justify the conquest of other regions, whereas Bryan warns that its exemplary quality would be undermined by imperial expansion. Choice A is incorrect because Beveridge doesn’t present the concept of liberty as it’s realized in the United States as the direct inheritance of European colonization. Choice C is incorrect because Beveridge doesn’t argue that the concept of liberty as it’s realized in the United States arose organically as the country matured; instead, both Beveridge and Bryan emphasize the divinely inspired, intrinsic nature of the American concept of liberty. Choice D is incorrect because Bryan views the concept of liberty as it’s realized in the United States as encompassing a desire for self-rule and argues that this desire is universal and not unique to the United States. QUESTION 41 Choice D is the best answer. In Passage 1, Beveridge advocates for American administration of island nations, such as the Philippines. However, in the first paragraph of Passage 2, Bryan warns, “If it is right for the United States to hold the Philippine Islands permanently and imitate European empires in the government of colonies, the Republican party . . . must expect the subject races to protest against such a policy and to resist to the extent of their ability.” Thus it can most reasonably be inferred from Passage 2 that Bryan would criticize the vision of American governance of island territories that Beveridge presents in Passage 1 for being naive, since the islanders would object to being governed by Americans. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because, in Passage 2, Bryan doesn’t imply that Beveridge’s vision of American governance of island territories is unrealistic due to most Americans’ unwillingness to relocate to distant islands (choice A), deceptive due to the fact that economic domination would be the true goal of the American government (choice B), or impractical due to the islanders’ insistence upon an equal distribution of resources (choice C).

ANS wE R Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 389 QUESTION 42 Choice A is the best answer. The previous question asks what criticism Bryan would most likely make of Beveridge’s vision of American governance of island territories. The answer, that Bryan would criticize this vision for being naive, since islanders would object to being governed by Americans, is best supported by the first paragraph of Passage 2: “If it is right for the United States to hold the Philippine Islands permanently and imitate European empires in the government of colonies, the Republican party ought to state its position and defend it, but it must expect the subject races to protest against such a policy and to resist to the extent of their ability.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they assert that the people of the Philippines don’t need encouragement from Americans to resist imperialism (choice B), state that American history encourages resistance to imperialism by all people, including the people of the Philippines (choice C), and note the enduring resonance of Patrick Henry’s famous quote about liberty (choice D). QUESTION 43 Choice A is the best answer. The passage summarizes research on the relationship between plowing and weed growth. According to the fourth paragraph, the research of Karl Hartmann suggests that plowing fields during the day leads to weed growth because exposure to even small amounts of light can “induce seed germination,” or cause seeds to sprout. Thus, according to the passage, exposure to light allows seeds to begin to develop. Choices B and D are incorrect because the passage indicates that small amounts of light cause seeds to sprout, but it doesn’t explicitly assert that light exposure allows seeds to absorb necessary nutrients (choice B) and doesn’t discuss whether light exposure helps seeds achieve maximum growth (choice D). Choice C is incorrect because the passage doesn’t indicate that light exposure can help seeds withstand extreme temperatures. QUESTION 44 Choice B is the best answer. In the second paragraph of the passage, the following question is posed: “Do the blades of a plow, which can reach more than a foot beneath the soil surface, bring some of these buried seeds to the surface where their germination is induced by exposure to sunlight?” The passage goes on to describe research conducted both in the laboratory and in the field that sought to answer this question. Hence the question in the second paragraph primarily serves to introduce the specific research topic addressed in the passage.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 390 Choice A is incorrect because the question in the second paragraph doesn’t primarily serve to emphasize the provisional nature of the findings discussed in the passage. Sauer and Struik’s 1960s lab experiments , described in the third paragraph, produced findings that could be characterized as provisional; however, Karl Hartmann’s research described in the fourth paragraph clearly demonstrated that plowing at night can be an effective way to reduce weed growth. Choice C is incorrect because the impact of the studies analyzed in the passage has been real and practical, not hypothetical. Choice D is incorrect because the question in the second paragraph doesn’t indicate that there is any significant disagreement about the methods explored in the passage. QUESTION 45 Choice D is the best answer. The last sentence of the second paragraph asks, “Do the blades of a plow . . . bring some of these buried seeds to the surface where their germination is induced by exposure to sunlight?” In other words, does some farm equipment bring buried seeds to the surface where their sprouting is stimulated, or activated, by exposure to sunlight? Therefore, in the context of the passage, the word “induced” most nearly means stimulated. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in the context of the passage, “induced” most nearly means stimulated, not lured (choice A), established (choice B), or convinced (choice C). QUESTION 46 Choice C is the best answer. The question asks which selection from the passage best supports the idea that seeds present in fields plowed at night are exposed to some amount of light. The fourth paragraph asserts that plowing at night can reduce the germination of weed seeds. The paragraph concludes that “although even under these conditions hundreds of millions of photons strike each square millimeter of ground each second, this illumination is below the threshold needed to stimulate the germination of most seeds.” Thus this sentence best supports the idea that seeds present in fields plowed at night are exposed to some amount of light. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best support for the idea that seeds present in fields plowed at night are exposed to some amount of light. Instead, they relay Hartmann’s initial reasoning about seed exposure to light in fields plowed during the day (choice A), affirm that even minute durations of sunlight exposure can induce seed germination (choice B), and explain Hartmann’s initial skepticism regarding his own idea about the effectiveness of nighttime plowing as a weed deterrent (choice D).

ANS wE R Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 391 QUESTION 47 Choice A is the best answer. The sixth paragraph describes an experiment conducted by Karl Hartmann with the help of farmer Karl Seydel. Seydel plowed one strip of land during the day and the other at night to see what effect this had on weed growth. However, “no crops were planted in these pilot experiments, to avoid possible competition with the emerging weeds.” Thus the passage suggests that if Seydel had planted wheat or corn on the two agricultural strips in Hartmann’s experiment, the percentage of the surface of each strip covered with weeds would likely have been lower than the percentage that Hartmann found. Choice B is incorrect. If Seydel had planted wheat or corn crops on the two agricultural strips, the percentage of weeds wouldn’t have been higher than the percentage predicted because competition with the crops would have prevented some weed growth. Choice C is incorrect because a reduction in weed growth would have been easily observable, not nearly impossible for Hartmann to determine. Choice D is incorrect. Hartmann’s original projection was that plowing at night wouldn't provide more effective weed control. Therefore, the dramatic drop in the percentage of weeds covering the strip plowed at night wouldn’t have been comparable with Hartmann’s original projection, regardless of whether crops were planted. QUESTION 48 Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what the passage suggests about the percentage of surface that would have been covered with weeds if Seydel had planted wheat or corn on the two agricultural strips in Hartmann’s experiment. The answer, that the percentage of surface with weeds would have been lower than the percentage Hartmann found, is best supported in the sixth paragraph: “No crops were planted in these pilot experiments, to avoid possible competition with the emerging weeds.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the cited lines don’t provide the best evidence for the answer to the previous question. Instead, they describe the conditions of Hartmann’s experiment (choice A), characterize the results of the experiment as dramatic (choice C), and report the results of the experiment (choice D). QUESTION 49 Choice C is the best answer. The sixth paragraph states, in reference to Hartmann’s experiment, “The results were dramatic. More than 80 percent of the surface of the field plowed in daylight was covered by weeds, whereas only about 2 percent of the field plowed at night was covered by weeds.” In other words, the outcome of the experiment was impressive, or striking. Therefore, in the context of the passage, the word “dramatic” most nearly means impressive.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 392 Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because, in the context of the passage, “dramatic” most nearly means impressive, not theatrical (choice A), sudden (choice B), or emotional (choice D). QUESTION 50 Choice A is the best answer. According to the table, 0 weed seedlings emerged in sample A when the soil was disturbed in darkness. This is the lowest number of seedlings recorded among all the samples in the table when the soil was disturbed in darkness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sample B (choice B), sample C (choice C), and sample D (choice D) had 1, 2, and 3 seedlings emerge, respectively, when the soil was disturbed in darkness. These totals are all greater than 0, the number of seedlings that emerged from sample A when the soil was disturbed in darkness. QUESTION 51 Choice C is the best answer. According to the table, 14 weed seedlings emerged in sample I when the soil was disturbed in light. This is the highest number of seedlings recorded among all the samples in the table when the soil was disturbed in light. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sample G (choice A), sample H (choice B), and sample J (choice D) had 0, 2, and 5 seedlings emerge, respectively, when the soil was disturbed in light. This is less than the 14 seedlings that emerged from sample I when the soil was disturbed in light. QUESTION 52 Choice D is the best answer. The data presented in the table show that in nine of the ten soil samples studied, fewer weeds grew in the soil when it was disturbed in darkness than when it was disturbed in light. The fourth paragraph relays Karl Hartmann’s hypothesis based on Sauer and Struik’s studies of weed growth in the 1960s: “Th us the germination of weed seeds would be minimized if farmers simply plowed their fields during the night, when the photon fluence rate [the rate at which photons hit the surface] is below 10 15 photons per square meter per second.” Therefore, the data presented in the table most directly support the claim made in the fourth paragraph of the passage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the cited lines aren’t directly supported by the data presented in the table. While the findings in the table report on weed growth in soil stirred up during the day and night, these lines discuss the prehistoric use of plowing to control weeds (choice A), the number of weed seeds buried beneath the soil surface (choice B), and the depth at which seeds are buried that prevents them from germinating (choice C).

ANS wE R Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 393 Section 2: writing and language Test QUESTION 1 Choice A is the best answer. The conjunction “and” appropriately separates the last two nouns in the series, “radio” and “other media.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because “and with,” “and also,” and “and competing with” disrupt the parallel structure of the series of three nouns (“television,” “radio,” “[other] media”) introduced by “competing with.” QUESTION 2 Choice D is the best answer. The topic of the passage is the creation of The Cat in the Hat as a means of getting children more interested in learning to read. Hersey’s suggestion that one way of making children’s books more interesting was to use “drawings like those of the wonderfully imaginative geniuses among children’s illustrators” best supports the topic of the passage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t support the topic of the passage. A sense of wholeness and accomplishment, the value of failure, and a difference between journalism and fiction don’t support the idea of making children’s literature more interesting. QUESTION 3 Choice A is the best answer. The comma after “Spaulding” is paired correctly with the comma after “Mifflin” to set off grammatically nonessential information. Choice B is incorrect because a comma is needed after “Spaulding” to set off the nonessential phrase that ends with “Mifflin.” Choice C is incorrect because placing a comma after “Spaulding” and after “director” wrongly indicates that “the director” could be deleted without changing the meaning of the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a dash can’t be paired with a comma to set off grammatically nonessential information. QUESTION 4 Choice A is the best answer. This choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion because it’s concise and correctly indicates that Spaulding saw a need for appealing books for beginning readers at the same time that he thought he knew who should write one. Choice B is incorrect because “namely” indicates that a more specific restatement of an earlier point or an example will follow. In this case, what follows the idea that Spaulding saw a need for appealing books is his thought about who should write one. Choice C is incorrect because the repetition of Spaulding’s name is unnecessary.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 394 Choice D is incorrect because the adverb “meanwhile” is redundant; the conjunction “and” is sufficient to indicate that Spaulding had two thoughts simultaneously. QUESTION 5 Choice D is the best answer. This choice, which indicates that Geisel published nine children’s books and received three nominations for the prestigious Caldecott Medal, supports the information that follows in the sentence about Geisel being an experienced writer and illustrator. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Geisel’s long relationship with Spaulding, Geisel’s reputation for perfectionism and for setting high standards, and his interest in politics don’t support the idea that Geisel was an experienced writer and illustrator. QUESTION 6 Choice A is the best answer; “however” correctly indicates that even though Geisel was an experienced writer and illustrator, the new project presented him with an obstacle. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none of these transitional words or phrases shows the true relationship between the challenging nature of the new project and Geisel’s experience. “For example,” “furthermore,” and “at any rate” indicate that what follows is an instance of, additional to, or unrelated to what was stated in the previous sentence. QUESTION 7 Choice C is the best answer. The introductory phrase “on the verge of giving up” doesn’t have its own subject. Instead, the subject appears at the beginning of the sentence’s main clause and makes clear what is being described in the introductory phrase. “Geisel” is the logical subject of the sentence because he can be described as being “on the verge of giving up.” Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because “Geisel’s story,” “an image,” and “the story” can’t be described as being “on the verge of giving up.” QUESTION 8 Choice D is the best answer. This choice concisely indicates that it took Geisel nine months to complete The Cat in the Hat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they’re repetitive. “Duration” and “long” (choice A), “thirty-six weeks” (choice B), and “length” (choice C) unnecessarily repeat the idea that nine months had passed.

ANS wE R Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 395 QUESTION 9 Choice D is the best answer. The underlined portion should be deleted because it isn’t necessary. Since “were entertained” appears earlier in the sentence, the past participle “captivated” is sufficient without the repetition of “were.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because “is captivated,” “was captivated,” and “has been captivated” are singular verbs that don’t agree in number with the plural subject “children.” QUESTION 10 Choice C is the best answer. The comma after “followed” is used correctly to separate the dependent phrase “in the years that followed” from the independent clause that begins with “many.” Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a period, a semicolon, or a dash can’t be used in this way to separate an introductory dependent phrase from an independent clause. QUESTION 11 Choice C is the best answer. This choice indicates that The Cat in the Hat’s success is attributable to its enduring ability to delight children and engage them in learning how to read. This idea restates the main themes of the passage, which are the need to make books appealing to beginning readers and the importance of engaging those readers through interesting plots and illustrations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. The idea that the best proof of The Cat in the Hat’s success is its limited vocabulary and appealing word choices, its impressive worldwide sales, or its important role in the history of twentieth-century illustration doesn’t restate the main themes of the passage. QUESTION 12 Choice D is the best answer. The gerund “picking up” is parallel in structure to the other gerunds in the sentence, “helping” and “working.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t maintain parallelism in the sentence. “When they pick up litter,” “to pick up litter,” and “litter collection” don’t contain gerunds. QUESTION 13 Choice A is the best answer. The transitional phrase “by its very definition” points to the criticism in the previous paragraph that when volunteering is compulsory, it’s no longer volunteerism.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 396 Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the reference to general work, students, or communities in need doesn’t highlight the criticism of compulsory volunteering mentioned in the previous paragraph. QUESTION 14 Choice D is the best answer. The plural noun “officials” correctly refers to the people who require students to give up time for nonprofit activities. Additionally, the plural possessive noun “students’” indicates that the choice to give up personal time is supposed to belong to multiple students. Choice A is incorrect because “officials’” is a plural possessive noun, but nothing belongs to the officials in this sentence. Choice B is incorrect because “students” is a plural noun, but the plural possessive noun “students’” is needed to indicate that the choice is supposed to belong to students. Choice C is incorrect because “student’s” is a singular possessive noun, but the plural possessive noun “students’” is needed to show that the choice is supposed to belong to multiple students. QUESTION 15 Choice C is the best answer. This choice is clear and concise and doesn’t repeat the idea of proponents that begins the sentence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they’re repetitive. Since proponents are people who support a cause, describing proponents of compulsory volunteering as being in favor of it, advocating it, or being advocates creates redundancy. QUESTION 16 Choice B is the best answer. This choice, a closer connection with their community, is a benefit of volunteering and provides a supporting example that is most similar to the other examples of benefits offered in the sentence: increased self-esteem and better relationship-building skills. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they don’t provide supporting examples that are similar to the examples in the sentence. Increasingly busy schedules, less time spent engaging in social activities, and little increase in academic achievement aren’t benefits of volunteering. QUESTION 17 Choice B is the best answer. The infinitive “[to] affect” parallels the earlier infinitive “[to] volunteer” (“are more likely to volunteer,” “[are more likely to] affect”). Moreover, “affect,” meaning “to influence,” is used correctly to indicate that students who do community service positively influence society.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 397 Choices A and C are incorrect because the verb “effect” generally means “to bring about” and the noun “effect” means “result,” neither of which makes sense in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb “affects” doesn’t work here, where the infinitive “affect” is required. QUESTION 18 Choice A is the best answer; “mandatory” is the most precise word to use when describing the volunteering that students are required to do. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the meanings of these words don’t fit the context of the sentence. “Coercive” and “forcible” suggest that threats or force are used to make someone do something. “Imperative” suggests that something is very important or necessary. None of these words is appropriate to use when describing the volunteering that students are required to do. QUESTION 19 Choice D is the best answer. The semicolon is used correctly to separate the independent clause that begins with “she” from the independent clause that begins with “they.” In addition, this choice contains no unnecessary punctuation. Choice A is incorrect because a comma can’t be used by itself to join two independent clauses. Choice B is incorrect because it’s unnecessary to place a comma between the adverb “then” and the verb “did,” which the adverb describes. Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed to separate the subject “they” from the adverb “then.” QUESTION 20 Choice B is the best answer because “than did students who were” results in a logical comparison between two types of students: those who were required to volunteer (“they then did”) and those who weren’t (“than did those”). Choices A and C are incorrect because each illogically compares “hours” to students (“they”). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a nonstandard expression; “less” is already comparative, meaning that “compared with” isn’t appropriate. QUESTION 21 Choice C is the best answer. The idea that schools should focus on offering arrangements that make volunteering an easy and attractive choice most effectively sets up the point made in the next sentence: more students willingly volunteer when schools tell them about volunteering opportunities and connect them with organizations.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 398 Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t effectively set up the point made in the next sentence. The ideas that schools have to recognize that not all students are equally well suited to the same activities, should allow students to spend their time participating in athletics and other extracurricular activities, and are advised to recognize the limits of their ability to influence their students don’t set up the point that students willingly volunteer when schools connect them to volunteer opportunities and organizations. QUESTION 22 Choice B is the best answer. This choice provides a conclusion that states the main claim of the passage: schools that don’t make volunteering compulsory will produce more engaged, enthusiastic volunteers than will schools that require volunteer work. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The idea that schools should find volunteers for organizations in the United States, that psychological and economic studies have revolutionized understandings of volunteerism, or that students should choose charitable work that suits their interests and values doesn’t state the passage’s main claim that schools that don’t require volunteering produce more engaged, enthusiastic volunteers. QUESTION 23 Choice C is the best answer. The present perfect tense verb “have believed” correctly indicates that scientists in the past believed that the corpus callosum enables complex tasks and that scientists continue to hold this belief in the present. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t describe a belief that originated in the past and continues in the present. The present progressive tense verb “are believing,” the future progressive tense verb “will be believing,” and the simple present tense verb “believe” aren’t appropriate to use in a case that requires a present perfect tense verb. QUESTION 24 Choice A is the best answer. This choice concisely defines handedness without unnecessarily repeating the ideas of preference or consistency. Choices B and C are incorrect because “favor the use of” and “could be chosen,” respectively, repeat the idea of “prefer,” which appears earlier in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because “on a regular basis” is synonymous with “consistently,” which also appears earlier in the sentence.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 399 QUESTION 25 Choice A is the best answer. No punctuation is necessary between the noun “trait” and the preposition “other than.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because neither a comma, a semicolon, nor a colon is necessary to separate the noun “trait” from the phrase that follows. QUESTION 26 Choice B is the best answer. The phrase “correlates with” is idiomatic when indicating that two things are directly related to each other. In the passage, handedness in marsupials is believed to be related to the trait of bipedalism in those mammals. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because “links as,” “correlates from,” and “links on” aren’t idiomatic when indicating that two things are directly related to each other. QUESTION 27 Choice D is the best answer. According to the graph, positive mean handedness index scores indicated a left-forelimb preference and negative scores indicated a right-forelimb preference. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t accurately reflect the information in the graph. QUESTION 28 Choice B is the best answer. The comma after “kangaroo” and before the conjunction “and” is used correctly to separate the last two items, “red kangaroo” and “brush-tailed bettong,” in the list of bipedal marsupials. Choice A is incorr ect because the comma needs to be placed immediately before the conjunction “and,” not after it. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon isn’t used to separate individual items in a simple list. Choice D is incorrect because a dash isn’t used to separate items in a list, and the comma after “and” is unnecessary. QUESTION 29 Choice C is the best answer. According to the graph, the four bipedal marsupials had positive mean handedness index values between 0.4 and 0.6, which revealed their preference for using their left forelimbs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t accurately reflect t he data in the graph. The four bipedal marsupials didn’t have positive mean handedness index values less than 0.2 or greater than 0.6, and t hey didn’t have mean handedness index values of 0.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 400 QUESTION 30 Choice C is the best answer. The transitional phrase “in contrast to” provides the best transition from the previous paragraph, which illustrates bipedal marsupials’ forelimb preference, to this paragraph, which discusses how quadrupedal marsupials differ from their bipedal counterparts by not showing a strong forelimb preference. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they don’t provide a transition from the previous paragraph. The introductory phrases “having four feet,” “like most other mammals,” and “while using their forelimbs for eating” don’t establish a connection between the discussion of bipedal marsupials’ forelimb preference in the previous paragraph and quadrupedal marsupials’ forelimb preference in this paragraph. QUESTION 31 Choice B is the best answer. A main claim of the passage is that scientists now believe there’s a correlation between bipedalism and handedness in marsupials. Choice B, by mentioning that bipedal marsupials in the study demonstrated handedness, references this main claim. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they don’t present a main claim of the passage. The passage isn’t about how kangaroos still don’t exhibit handedness to the extent that humans do, the many things scientists don’t understand about the marsupial brain, or additional studies on the phenomenon of handedness that will need to be performed with other mammals. QUESTION 32 Choice B is the best answer. “Which” is a standard relative pronoun in reference to a concept such as a task. Choice A is incorrect because “whom” is used to refer to people, not concepts. Choice C is incorrect because “what” isn’t a typical relative pronoun and isn’t idiomatic in context (“tasks in what handedness may confer an evolutionary advantage”). Choice D is incorrect because “whose” nonsensically suggests that tasks have handedness. QUESTION 33 Choice A is the best answer. No change is needed because this choice concludes the passage by recalling a topic from the first paragraph that requires additional research: scientists’ enduring question about how the left and right hemispheres of marsupials’ brains communicate since these mammals lack a corpus callosum.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 401 Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none of these choices concludes the passage by recalling a topic from the first paragraph that requires additional research. The first paragraph doesn’t refer to the minority of humans who are left handed, the fact that studies like this one may someday yield insights into the causes of neurological disorders, or an additional study to examine handedness in other animals that sometimes stand upright. QUESTION 34 Choice C is the best answer. “Although these levels are impressive” provides the most effective transition from the previous sentence, which indicates the percent of surveyed companies that provide employees with tuition assistance, to the information that follows in this sentence, that even more companies should consider providing such assistance. Choice A is incorrect because “despite these findings” suggests that regardless of the percentages, more companies should consider providing tuition assistance, which is illogical. Choice B is incorrect because the information that follows in the sentence isn’t additional to the 2014 study. Choice D is incorrect because the issue of whether companies want or don’t want to provide tuition assistance isn’t mentioned in the previous sentence. QUESTION 35 Choice D is the best answer. This choice most effectively establishes the main idea of the passage, which is that companies should offer tuition assistance because doing so helps attract and retain employees. This main idea is supported in the second paragraph, which argues that tuition assistance appeals to highly motivated and disciplined individuals, and in the third paragraph, which claims that employees receiving tuition assistance often stay with their employers even after they complete their degrees. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they don’t establish the passage’s main idea. The passage isn’t about increasing customer satisfaction, solving the problem of rising tuition costs, or strengthening the US economy. QUESTION 36 Choice C is the best answer. The plural noun “workers” correctly indicates that companies have more than one worker. The plural noun “opportunities” indicates that employers offer workers multiple chances for personal and professional development. Choices A and B are incorrect because the plural possessive nouns “workers’” and “opportunities’” should be the plural nouns “workers” and “opportunities,” since nothing belongs to the workers

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 402 or opportunities in the sentence. Choice D is incorrect because the singular nouns “worker” and “opportunity” should be plural, and the apostrophes indicating possession aren’t needed. QUESTION 37 Choice B is the best answer. The main verb “stressed” provides a simple predicate for the subject “John Fox” to create a grammatically complete sentence. Choices A and C are incorrect because “who stressed” and “stressing” leave the sentence without an independent clause. Choice D is incorrect because although “he stressed” gives the sentence an independent clause, that clause is improperly joined by “and” to the phrases “John Fox” and “the director of dealer training at Fiat Chrysler Automobiles in the United States.” QUESTION 38 Choice C is the best answer. This choice most effectively combines the sentences at the underlined portion because the pronoun “which” creates a relative clause (“which . . . workers”) that clearly and concisely describes “retain.” Choice A is incorrect because “retention” repeats the idea of “retain,” which is already mentioned in the sentence. Choice B is incorrect because “retaining” repeats the idea of “retain,” and the pronoun “whom” repeats the idea of “employees.” Choice D is incorrect because the pronoun “that” doesn’t have a clear antecedent and therefore creates a vague sentence. QUESTION 39 Choice C is the best answer. The subordinate conjunction “because” begins the dependent clause “because their new qualifications give them opportunities for advancement within the company.” No punctuation is needed to separate this dependent clause from the independent clause that directly precedes it. Choices A and D are incorrect because placing a period or a semicolon after “degrees” results in a rhetorically ineffective sentence fragment. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the noun and subordinate conjunction. (Although colons can be used to introduce additional explanatory information in a sentence, they’re not typically used between a main clause and a dependent clause beginning with a subordinate conjunction such as “because.”) QUESTION 40 Choice D is the best answer. The comma after “(UTC)” is paired corr ectly with the comma after “Lincoln” to set off grammatically nonessential information. The information between the commas, which describes who Valerie Lincoln is, could be removed and the sentence would still make sense.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 403 Choice A is incorrect because a comma is needed after “(UTC)” to set off t he grammatically nonessential phrase. Choices B and C are incorrect because neither a dash nor a colon can be paired with a comma to set off grammatically nonessential information. QUESTION 41 Choice A is the best answer. The adjective “deep” is used idiomatically with “knowledge” to indicate that Lincoln possessed extensive, in-depth information about her industry. Choice B is incorrect because “hidden” doesn’t make sense within the context of the sentence. A person whose knowledge is hidden wouldn’t be an asset to a company. Choices C and D are incorrect because “large” and “spacious” aren’t idiomatic when describing the extent of a person’s knowledge. QUESTION 42 Choice D is the best answer. “Keeping down costs” clearly and concisely identifies what businesses have succeeded in doing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they’re redundant. In choice A, the verbs “minimizing” and “keeping down” are synonyms, so only one is needed in the sentence. In choice B, “employees’ coursework” isn’t needed because this phrase already appears in the sentence. In choice C, “being effective” repeats the idea of “succeeded,” which appears earlier in the sentence. QUESTION 43 Choice A is the best answer. The infinitive “[to] divert” is grammatically correct when preceded by “are likely,” indicating that classes can redirect employees’ time and energy away from their jobs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because “diverted,” “in diverting,” and “diversions for” create ungrammatical sentences. QUESTION 44 Choice D is the best answer. To make the passage most logical, the sentence should be placed after the last sentence of paragraph 4. The use of “still” in the inserted sentence indicates that a contrast to what was stated previously will follow. Paragraph 4 ends by stating that tuition reimbursement may not be appropriate in all cases, and the inserted sentence indicates that despite this fact, employers should give serious thought to investing in reimbursement programs. Moreover, the inserted sentence restates the passage’s main claim and, therefore, effectively concludes the passage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the sentence at the end of paragraph 1, 2, or 3 would result in an illogical passage.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 404 Section 3: Math Test – No Calculator QUESTION 1 Choice B is correct. Subtracting z from both sides of 2z + 1 = z results in z + 1 = 0 . Subtracting 1 from both sides of z + 1 = 0 results in z = −1 . Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. When each of these values is substituted for z in the given equation, the result is a false statement. Substituting −2 for z yields 2(−2) + 1 = −2, or −3 = −2. Substituting 1—2 for z yields 2 1 — 2 + 1 = 1 —2 ( ) , or 2 = 1 —2 . Lastl y, substituting 1 for z yields 2(1) + 1 = 1, or 3 = 1. QUESTION 2 Choice C is correct. To complete the purchase, the initial payment of $60 plus the w weekly payments of $30 must be equivalent to the $300 price of the television. The total, in dollars, of w weekly payments of $30 can be expressed by 30w . It follows that 300 = 30w + 60 can be used to find t he number of w eekly payments, w, required to complete the purchase. Choice A is incorrect. Since the television is to be purchased with an initial payment and w weekly payments, the price of the television must be equivalent to the sum, not the difference, of these payments. Choice B is incorrect. This equation represents a situation where the television is purchased using only w weekly payments of $30, with no initial payment of $60. Choice D is incorrect. This equation represents a situation where the w weekly payments are $60 each, not $30 each, and the initial payment is $30, not $60. Also, since the television is to be purchased with weekly payments and an initial payment, the price of the television must be equivalent to the sum, not the difference, of these payments. QUESTION 3 Choice B is correct. Since the relationship between the merchandise weight x and the shipping charge f (x ) is linear, a function in the form f (x ) = mx + b , where m and b are constants, can be used. In this situation, the constant m represents the additional shipping charge, in dollars, for each additional pound of merchandise shipped, and the constant b represents a one-time charge, in dollars, for shipping any weight, in pounds, of merchandise. Using any two pairs of values from the table, such as (10, 21.89) and (20, 31.79), and dividing the difference in the charges by the difference in the weights gives the value of m : m = 31.79 − 21.89 — 20 − 10 , which simplifies to 9.9—10 , or 0.99. Substituting the value of m and any pair of values from t he table, such as (10, 21.89), for x and f (x ), respectively, gives the value of b : 21.89 = 0.99(10) + b , or b = 11.99. Ther efore, the function f ( x ) = 0.99x + 11.99 can be used to determine the total shipping charge f ( x ), in dollars, for an order with a merchandise weight of x pounds.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 405 Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. If any pair of values from the table is substituted for x and f (x ) , respectivel y, in these functions, the result is false. For example, substituting 10 for x and 21.89 for f (x ) in f ( x ) = 0.99 x yields 21.89 = 0.99(10), or 21.89 = 9.9, which is false. Similarly , substituting the values (10, 21.89) for x and f (x ) into the functions in choices C and D results in 21.89 = 33.9 and 21.89 = 50.84, respectively. Both are false. QUESTION 4 Choice C is correct. It’s given that the graph represents y = h(x ), thus the y -coordinate of each point on the graph corresponds to the height, in feet, of a Doric column with a base diameter of x feet. A Doric column with a base diameter of 5 feet is represented by the point (5, 35), and a Doric column with a base diameter of 2 feet is represented by the point (2, 14). Therefore, the column with a base diameter of 5 feet has a height of 35 feet, and the column with a base diameter of 2 feet has a height of 14 feet. It follows that the difference in heights of these two columns is 35 − 14, or 21 feet. Choice A is incorrect. This value is the slope of the line and represents the increase in the height of a Doric column for each increase in the base diameter by 1 foot. Choice B is incorrect. This value represents the height of a Doric column with a base diameter of 2 feet, or the difference in height between a Doric column with base diameter of 5 feet and a Doric column with base diameter of 3 feet. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 5 Choice A is correct. The expression _ _ √ _ 9 x 2 can be rewritten as ( √ 9)( √ x 2) . The square root symbol in an expression represents _ the principal square root, or the positive square root, thus √ 9 = 3. Since x > 0, taking the square root of the second factor, √ x 2_ , gives x. It follows that √ 9 x 2 _ is equivalent to 3x . Choice B is incorr _ect and may result from rewriting √ _ 9 x 2 as ( √ _ 9)( x 2 ) r ather than ( √ 9)( √ x 2) _ . Choices C and D are incorrect and may result from misunderstanding the oper ation indicated by a radical symbol. In both of these choices, instead of finding the square root of the coefficient 9, the coefficient has been multiplied by 2. Additionally, in choice D, x 2 has been squared to give x 4, instead of taking the square root of x 2 to get x . QUESTION 6 Choice A is correct. Factoring the numerator of the rational expression x 2 − 1 —x − 1 yiel ds ( x + 1)(x − 1) — x − 1 . The expr ession ( x + 1)(x − 1) — x − 1 can be r ewritten as (x + 1 — 1 )(x − 1—x − 1 ) . Since x − 1 — x − 1 = 1 , when x is not equal to 1, it follows that ( x + 1 — 1 )( x − 1 — x − 1 ) = ( x + 1 — 1 )(1) or x + 1 . Theref ore, the given equation is equivalent to x + 1 = −2. Subtracting 1 from both sides of x + 1 = −2 yields x = −3.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 406 Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Substituting 0, 1, or −1, respectively, for x in the given equation yields a false statement. Substituting 0 for x in the given equation yields 0 2 − 1 — 0 − 1 = −2 or 1 = −2, which is false. Substituting 1 for x in the given equation makes the left-hand side 12 − 1 — 1 − 1 = 0 —0 , which is undefined and not equal to −2. Substituting −1 for x in t he given equation yields (−1) 2 − 1 — −1 − 1 = −2, or 0 = −2, which is f alse. Therefore, these v alues don’t satisfy the given equation. QUESTION 7 Choice D is correct. Since y = f (x ), the value of f (0) is equal to the value of f (x ), or y , when x = 0. The graph indicates t hat when x = 0, y = 4. It follows tha t the value of f (0) = 4 . Choice A is incorrect. If the value of f (0) wer e 0, then when x = 0, the value of f ( x ), or y , would be 0 and the graph would pass through the point (0, 0). Choice B is incorrect. If the value of f (0) were 2, then when x = 0, the value of f ( x ), or y , would be 2 and the gr aph would pass through the point (0, 2). Choice C is incorrect. If the v alue of f (0) were 3, then when x = 0, the value of f ( x ) , or y, would be 3 and the graph would pass through the point (0, 3). QUESTION 8 Choice C is correct. Since point B lies on _AD , angl es ABC and CBD are supplementary. It’s given that angle ABC is a right angle; therefore, its measure is 90°. It foll ows that the measure of angle CBD is 180° − 90°, or 90°. By t he angle addition postulate, the measure of angle CBD is equival ent to x ° + 2x ° + 2x °. Therefore, 90 = x + 2x + 2 x. Combining like terms gives 90 = 5x . Dividing both sides of this equation by 5 yields x = 18. Theref ore, the value of 3x is 3(18), or 54. Choice A is incorrect. This is t he value of x . Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of 2x . Choice D is incorrect. This is t he value of 4x . QUESTION 9 Choice C is correct. The equation defining any line can be written in the form , where m is t he slope of the line and b is the y -coordinate of the y -intercept. Line ℓ passes through t he point (0, −4), which is the y-inter cept. Therefore, for line ℓ, b = −4. The sl ope of a line is the ratio of the difference between the y -coordinates of any two points to the difference between the x -coordinates of the same points. Calculating the slope using two points that line ℓ passes t hrough, (−4, 0) and (0, −4) , gives m = _ (−4) − 0 = 4 —−4 0 − (−4) , or −1. Since m = −1 and b = −4, the equa tion of line ℓ can be written as y = (−1)x + (−4), or y = −x − 4. A dding x to y = mx + b both sides of y = −x − 4 yields x + y = −4 . Choices A and B are incorrect. These equations both represent lines with a positive slope, but line ℓ has a negative slope. Choice D is incorrect. This equation represents a line that passes through the points (4, 0) and (0, 4), not the points (−4, 0) and (0, −4).

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 407 QUESTION 10 Choice D is correct. Since the graph represents the equation y = 2x 2 + 10x + 12, it follows that each point (x , y ) on the graph is a solution to t his equation. Since the gr aph crosses the y-axis at (0, k ), then substituting 0 for x and k for y in y = 2 x + 10x + 12 2 creates a true statement: k = 2(0) 2 + 10(0) + 12, or k = 12 . Choice A is incorrect. If k = 2 when x = 0, it follows t hat 2 = 2(0) 2 + 10(0) + 12, or 2 = 12, which is false. Choice B is incorrect. If k = 6 when x = 0, it follo ws that 6 = 2(0) 2 + 10(0) + 12, or 6 = 12, which is false. Choice C is incorrect. If k = 10 when x = 0, it foll ows that 10 = 2(0) 2 + 10(0) + 12, or 10 = 12, which is false. QUESTION 11 Choice A is correct. A circle in the xy -plane with center (h , k ) and radius r is defined by the equation (x − h ) 2 + (y − k ) 2 = r 2. Therefore, an equation of a circle wit h center (5, 7) and radius 2 is ( x − 5) 2 + (y − 7) 2 = 2 2, or (x − 5) + (y − 7) 2 = 4 2 . Choice B is incorrect. This equation defines a circle with center (−5, −7) and radius 2. Choice C is incorrect. This equation defines _ a circle with center (5, 7) and radius √ 2 . Choice D is incorr ect. This equation defines a circle with center (−5, −7) and radius √ 2_ . QUESTION 12 Choice B is correct. Since figures are drawn to scale unless otherwise stated and triangle ABC is similar to triangle DEF, it follows that the measure of angle B is equal to the measure of angle E . Furthermore, it follows that side AB corresponds to side DE and that side BC corresponds to side EF. For similar triangles, corresponding sides are proportional, so AB — BC = DE —EF . In right triangle DEF, the cosine of angle E, or cos(E ), is equal to the length of the side adjacent to angle E divided by the length of the hypotenuse in triangle DEF. Therefore, cos(E ) = DE —EF , which is equivalent to AB —BC . Therefore, cos(E ) = 12 —13 . Choice A is incorrect. This value represents the tangent of angle F , or tan(F ), which is defined as t he length of the side opposite angle F divided by the length of the side adjacent to angle F . Choice C is incorrect. This value represents the tangent of angle E , or tan(E ), which is defined as the length of the side opposite angle E divided by the length of the side adjacent to angle E . Choice D is incorrect. This value represents the sine of angle E , or sin(E ), which is defined as t he length of the side opposite angle E divided by the length of the hypotenuse. QUESTION 13 Choice C is correct. The x-intercepts of the graph of f (x ) = x 2 + 5x + 4 are the points (x , f ( x )) on the graph wher e f (x ) = 0. Substituting 0 for f ( x ) in the function equation yiel ds 0 = x 2 + 5x + 4. Factoring the right-hand side of 0 = x 2 + 5x + 4 yields 0 = (x + 4)(x + 1).

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 408 If 0 = (x + 4)(x + 1), then 0 = x + 4 or 0 = x + 1. Solving both of these equations for x yiel ds x = −4 and x = −1. Therefore, the x -intercepts of the graph of f (x ) = x 2 + 5x + 4 are (−4, 0) and (−1, 0). Since bot h points lie on the x -axis, the distance between (−4, 0) and (−1, 0) is equi valent to the number of unit spaces between −4 and −1 on the x -axis, which is 3. Choice A is incorrect. This is the distance from the origin to the x -intercept (−1, 0). Choice B is incorrect and may result from incorrectly calculating the x -intercepts. Choice D is incorrect. This is the distance from the origin to the x -intercept (−4, 0). QUESTION 14 Choice B is correct. Squaring both sides of the equation √ _ 4 x = x − 3 yields 4x = (x − 3) 2, or 4x = (x − 3)(x − 3). Applying the distributive property on the right-hand side of the equation 4x = (x − 3)(x − 3) yields 4 x = x 2 − 3x − 3x + 9. Subtracting 4x from both sides of 4 x = x 2 − 3x − 3x + 9 yields 0 = x 2 − 3x − 3x − 4x + 9, which can be rewritten as 0 = x 2 − 10x + 9. Factoring the right-hand side of 0 = x 2 − 10x + 9 gives 0 = (x − 1)(x − 9). By the zero product property, if 0 = ( x − 1)(x − 9), then 0 = x − 1 or 0 = x − 9. Adding 1 to both sides of 0 = x − 1 gives x = 1. Adding 9 to both sides of 0 = x − 9 gi ves x = 9. Substituting these v alues for x into the given equation will determine whether they satisfy the equation. Substituting 1 for x in the given equation yields 4(1) = 1 − 3√ _ , or √ 4 = −2_ , which is false. Therefore, x = 1 doesn’t satisfy the given equation. Substituting 9 for x in the given equation yields √ 4(9) = 9 − 3 _ or √ 36 = 6_ , which is true. Therefore, x = 9 satisfies the given equation. Choices A and C are incorrect because x = 1 doesn’t satisfy the given equation: √ 4 x _ represents the principal square root of 4x , which can’t be negative. Choice D is incorrect because x = 9 does sa tisfy the given equation. QUESTION 15 Choice A is correct. A system of two linear equations has no solution if the graphs of the lines represented by the equations are parallel and are not equivalent. Parallel lines have equal slopes but different y -intercepts. The slopes and y -intercepts for the two given equations can be found by solving each equation for y in terms of x, thus putting the equations in slope-intercept form. This yields y = 3x + 6 and y = (−a _ 2) x + 2 . The sl ope and y-inter cept of the line with equation −3x + y = 6 are 3 and (0, 6), respecti vely. The slope and y-intercept of the line with equation ax + 2y = 4 are represented by the expression − _ 2 aand the point (0, 2), respectively. The value of a can be found by setting the two slopes equal to each other, which gives − a _ 2 = 3 . Multipl ying both sides of this equation by −2 gi ves a = −6. When a = −6 , the lines are parallel and have different y -intercepts.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 409 Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because these values of a would result in two lines that are not parallel, and therefore the resulting system of equations would have a solution. QUESTION 16 The correct answer is 2200. If the total shipping cost was $47,000, then T = 47,000. If 3000 units w ere shipped to the farther location, then f = 3000. Substituting 47,000 for T and 3000 for f in the equation T = 5c + 12f yields 47,000 = 5c + 12(3000). Multipl ying 12 by 3000 yields 47,000 = 5c + 36,000. Subtracting 36,000 from both sides of the equation yields 11,000 = 5c . Dividing both sides by 5 yields c = 2200. Therefore, 2200 units w ere shipped to the closer location. QUESTION 17 The correct answer is 5. By definition of absolute value, if | 2x + 1 | = 5 , then 2x + 1 = 5 or −(2x + 1) = 5, which can be rewritten as 2x + 1 = −5. Subtracting 1 from both sides of 2x + 1 = 5 and 2x + 1 = −5 yields 2 x = 4 and 2x = −6, respectively. Dividing both sides of 2x = 4 and 2 x = −6 by 2 yields x = 2 and x = −3, respectively. If a and b are the solutions to the given equation, then a = 2 and b = −3. It f ollows then that | a − b | = |2 − (−3) | = | 5 | , which is 5. Similarly, if a = −3 and b = 2, it follo ws that a − b = | −3 − 2 | = | −5 | | | , which is also 5. QUESTION 18 The correct answer is 1.21. It’s given that each year, the value of the antique is estimated to increase by 10% over its value the previous year. Increasing a quantity by 10% is equivalent to the quantity increasing to 110% of its original value or multipl ying the original quantity by 1.1. Therefore, 1 year after the purchase, the estimated value of the antique is 200(1.1) dollars. Then, 2 years after purchase, the estimated value of the antique is 200(1.1)(1.1), or 200(1.21) dollars . It’s given that the estimated value of the antique after 2 years is 200a dollars. Therefore, 200(1.21) = 200a . It follows that a = 1.21. QUESTION 19 The correct answer is 2500. Adding the given equations yields (2x + 3y ) + (3x + 2y) = (1200 + 1300). Combining like terms yields 5 x + 5y = 2500. Therefore, the value of 5x + 5y is 2500. QUESTION 20 The correct answer is 20. Factoring the expression u 2 − t 2 yields ( u − t )(u + t ). Therefore, the expression (u − t )(u 2 − t 2) can be rewritten as (u − t )(u − t )(u + t ). Substituting 5 for u + t and 2 for u − t in this expression yields (2)(2)(5), which is equal to 20.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 410 Section 4: Math Test – Calculator QUESTION 1 Choice B is correct. It’s given that the helicopter’s initial height is 40 feet above the ground and that when the helicopter’s altitude begins to increase, it increases at a rate of 21 feet per second. Therefore, the altitude gain t seconds after the helicopter begins rising is represented by the expression 21t . Adding this expression to the helicopter’s initial height gives the helicopter’s altitude above the ground y , in feet, t seconds after the helicopter begins to gain altitude: y = 40 + 21t. Choice A is incorrect. This is the helicopter’s altitude above the ground 1 second after it began to gain altitude, not t seconds after it began to gain altitude. Choice C is incorrect because adding the expression −21t makes this function represent a decrease in altitude. Choice D is incorrect and is the result of using the initial height of 40 feet as the rate at which the helicopter’s altitude increases per second and the rate of 21 feet per second as the initial height. QUESTION 2 Choice A is correct. The text messaging plan charges a flat fee of $5 per mont h for up to 100 text messages. This is represented graphically with a constant value of y = 5 for 0 ≤ x ≤ 100. After 100 messages, each additional message sent costs $0.25. This is represented graphically with an increase of 0.25 on the y -axis for every increase of 1 on the x -axis. Choice A matches these descriptions. Choice B is incorrect. This choice shows a linear decrease after x = 100, indica ting the price of the plan would decrease, rather than increase, after 100 text messages. Choices C and D are incorrect. These choices don’t represent a constant value of y = 5 for 0 ≤ x ≤ 100, which is needed to represent the $5 per month for the first 100 text messages. QUESTION 3 Choice B is correct. During the first 15 minutes Jake is in the theater, or from 0 to 15 minutes, Jake’s popcorn amount decreases by half. This is represented graphically by a linear decrease. From 15 to 45 minutes, Jake stops eating popcorn. This is represented graphically by a constant y-value. From 45 to 90 minutes, Jake eats more popcorn. This is represented graphically by another linear decrease as the amount of popcorn in the bag gradually goes down. At 90 minutes, Jake spills all of his remaining popcorn. This is represented graphically by a vertical drop in the y -value to 0. Choice B matches these representations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. At no point during this period of time did Jake buy more popcorn. All of these graphs represent an increase in the amount of popcorn in Jake’s bag at some point during this period of time.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 411 QUESTION 4 Choice C is correct. Subtracting 20 from both sides of the given equation yields −x = −5. Dividing both sides of the equation −x = −5 by −1 yields x = 5. Lastly, substituting 5 for x in 3x yields the value of 3x , or 3(5) = 15. Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of x , not the value of 3x. Choices B and D are incorrect. If 3x = 10 or 3x = 35, then it foll ows that x = 10 _ 3 or x = 35 _ 3 , r espectively. Substituting 10_ 3 and 35_ 3 for x in the given equation yields 50 _ 3 = 15 and 25 _ 3 = 15 , r espectively, both of which are false statements. Since 3 x = 10 and 3x = 35 both lead to false statements, then 3x can’t be equivalent to either 10 or 35. QUESTION 5 Choice C is correct. The value of f (−1) can be found by substituting −1 for x in the given function f (x ) = _ 2 , which yiel ds f (−1) = −1 + 3 _ 2 x + 3 . Rewriting the numer ator by adding −1 and 3 yields 2 , which equals 1. _ 2 Therefore, f (−1) = 1. Choice A is incorrect and ma y result from miscalculating the value of −1 + 3_ 2 as −4_ 2 , or −2. Choice B is incorrect and may result from misinterpreting the value of x as the value of f (−1). Choice D is incorrect and may result from adding the expression −1 + 3 in the numerator. QUESTION 6 Choice D is correct. To determine which option is equivalent to the given expression, the expression can be rewritten using the distributive property by multiplying each term of the binomial ( x 2 − 3x ) by 2 x, which gives 2 x 3 − 6x 2. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from incorrectly applying the laws of exponents or from various computation errors when rewriting the expression. QUESTION 7 Choice B is correct. Selecting employees from each store at random is most appropriate because it’s most likely to ensure that the group surveyed will accurately represent each store location and all employees. Choice A is incorrect. Surveying employees at a single store location will only provide an accurate representation of employees at that location, not at all 50 store locations. Choice C is incorrect. Surveying the highest- and lowest-paid employees will not give an accurate representation of employees across all pay grades at the company.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 412 Choice D is incorrect. Collecting only the first 50 responses mimics the results of a self-selected survey. For example, the first 50 employees to respond to the survey could be motivated by an overwhelming positive or negative experience and thus will not accurately represent all employees. QUESTION 8 Choice C is correct. The graph for Ian shows that the initial deposit was $100 and that each week the total amount deposited increased by $100. Therefore, Ian deposited $100 each week. The graph f or Jeremy shows that the initial deposit was $300 and that each week the total amount deposited increased by $50. Therefore, Jeremy deposited $50 each week. Th us, Ian deposited $50 more than Jeremy did each week. Choice A is incorrect. This is the difference between the initial deposits in the savings accounts. Choice B is incorrect. This is the amount Ian deposited each week. Choice D is incorrect. This is half the amount that Jeremy deposited each week. QUESTION 9 Choice C is correct. The value of the expression h (5) − h(3) can be found b y substituting 5 and 3 for x in the given function. Substituting 5 for x in the function yields h (5) = 2 5, which can be rewritten as h (5) = 32. Substituting 3 for x in the function yields h(3) = 2 3, which can be rewritten as h (3) = 8. Substituting these values into the expression h (5) − h (3) produces 32 − 8 = 24. Choice A is incorrect. This is t he value of 5 − 3, not of h (5) − h(3). Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of h (5 − 3), or h(2), not of h (5) − h(3). Choice D is incorrect and may result from calculation errors. QUESTION 10 Choice D is correct. The margin of error is applied to the sample statistic to create an interval in which the population statistic most likely falls. An estimate of 23% wit h a margin of error of 4% creates an interval of 23% ± 4%, or betw een 19% and 27%. Th us, it’s plausible that the percentage of students in the population who see a movie at least once a month is between 19% and 27%. Choice A is incorr ect and may result from interpreting the estimate of 23% as t he minimum number of students in the population who see a movie at least once per month. Choice B is incorrect and may result fr om interpreting the estimate of 23% as the minimum number of students in the population who see a movie at least once per month and adding half of the margin of error to conclude that it isn’t possible that more than 25% of students in the population see a movie at least once per month. Choice C is incorrect and may result from interpreting the sample statistic as the researcher’s level of confidence in the survey results and applying the margin of error to the level of confidence.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 413 QUESTION 11 Choice A is correct. The mean number of each list is found by dividing the sum of all the numbers in each list by the count of the numbers in each list. The mean of list A is 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 _ _ 6 = 3.5 , and the mean of list B is 2 + 3 + 3 + 4 + 4 + 5 _ _ 6 = 3.5 . Th us, the means are the same. The standard deviations can be compared by inspecting the distances of the n umbers in each list from the mean. List A contains two numbers that are 0.5 from the mean, two numbers that are 1.5 from the mean, and two numbers that are 2.5 from the mean. List B contains four numbers that are 0.5 fr om the mean and two numbers that are 1.5 from the mean. Overall, list B contains numbers that are closer to the mean than are the numbers in list A, so the standard deviations of the lists are different. Choice B is incorrect and may result from assuming that two data sets with the same mean must also have the same standard deviation. Choices C and D are incorrect and may result from an error in calculating the means. QUESTION 12 Choice C is correct. Let x represent the original price of the book. Then, 40% off of x is (1 − 0.40)x, or 0.60x. Since the sale price is $18.00, then 0.60x = 18. Dividing both sides of this equation by 0.60 yields x = 30. Therefore, the original price of the book was $30. Choice A is incorrect and may result from computing 40% of the sale price. Choice B is incorrect and may result from computing 40% off the sale price instead of the original price. Choice D is incorrect and may result from computing the original price of a book whose sale price is $18 when the sale is for 60% off the original price. QUESTION 13 Choice C is correct. According to the bar graph, the number of insects in colony A at week 0 was approximately 80, and this number decreased over each respective two-week period to approximately 50, 32, 25, and 18. Similarly, the graph shows that the number of insects in colony B at week 0 was approximately 64, and this number also decreased over each respective two-week period to approximately 60, 40, 38, and 10. Finally, the graph shows that the number of insects in colony C at week 0 was approximately 58; however, the number of insects increased in week 2, to approximately 140. Therefore, only colony A and colony B showed a decrease in size every two weeks after the initial treatment. Choice A is incorrect. Colony B also showed a decrease in size every two weeks. Choices B and D are incorrect. Colony C showed an increase in size between weeks 0 and 2.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 414 QUESTION 14 Choice A is correct. According to the bar graph, the total number of insects in all three colonies in week 8 was approximately 20 + 10 + 50 = 80, and the total number of insects at the time of initial treatment (week 0) was approximately 80 + 65 + 55 = 200. The ratio of these approximations is 80 to 200, which is equivalent to 2 to 5. Therefore, the ratio 2 to 5 is closest to the ratio of the total number of insects in all three colonies in week 8 to the total number of insects at the time of initial treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may result from setting up ratios using weeks other than week 8 and week 0 or from calculation errors. QUESTION 15 Choice B is correct. The formula for the volume V of a right circular cone is V = 1 _ 3 πr 2h , where r is the radius of the base and h is the height of the cone. It’s given that the cone’s volume is 24π cubic inches and its height is 2 inches. Substituting 24π for V and 2 for h yields 24π = 1 _ 3 πr 2(2) . Rewriting the right -hand side of this equation yields 24π = (2π _ 3) r 2 , which is equivalent to 36 = r 2. Taking the square root of both sides of this equation gives r = ±6. Since the radius is a measure of length, it can’t be negative. Therefore, the radius of the base of the cone is 6 inches. Choice A is incorrect and may result from using the formula for the volume of a right circular cylinder instead of a right circular cone. Choice C is incorrect. This is the diameter of the cone. Choice D is incorrect and may result from not taking the square root when solving for the radius. QUESTION 16 Choice C is correct. It’s given that the population of City X was 120,000 in 2010, and that it increased by 20% from 2010 to 2015. Therefore, the population of City X in 2015 was 120,000 (1 + 0.20) = 144,000. It’s also giv en that the population of City Y decreased by 10% from 2010 to 2015. If y represents the population of City Y in 2010, then y (1 − 0.10) = 144,000. Solving this equation for y yields y = 144,000 _ 1 − 0.10 . Simplifying t he denominator yields 144,000 _ 0.90 , or 160,000. Choice A is incorrect. If the population of City Y in 2010 w as 60,000, then the population of City Y in 2015 would have been 60,000(0.90) = 54,000, which is not equal to the City X population in 2015 of 144,000. Choice B is incorrect because 90,000(0.90) = 81,000, which is not equal to the City X population in 2015 of 144,000. Choice D is incorr ect becaus e 240,000(0.90) = 216,000 , which is not equal to the City X population in 2015 of 144,000.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 415 QUESTION 17 Choice D is correct. Dividing both sides of the equation V = 4 _ 3 πr 3 by 3π _ results in 4 3 V _ 4π = r 3 . T aking the cube root of both sides produces 3 √ 3V _ 4π = r _ . Ther efore, 3 √ 3V_ 4π gives the radius of the sphere in terms of the _ v olume of the sphere. Choice A is incorrect. This expr ession is equivalent to the reciprocal of r 3. Choice B is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to r 3. Choice C is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to the reciprocal of r . QUESTION 18 Choice C is correct. It’s given that the tablet user did not answer “Never,” so the tablet user could have answered only “Rarely,” “Often,” or “Always.” These answers make up 24.3% + 13.5% + 30.9% = 68.7% of the answers the tablet users gave in the survey. The answer “Always” makes up 30.9% of the answers tablet users gave in the survey. Thus, the probability is 30.9% _ 68.7% , or 0.309 _ 0.687 = 0.44978 , which rounds up to 0.45. Choice A is incorrect. This reflects the tablet users in the survey who answered “Always.” Choice B is incorrect. This reflects all tablet users who did not answer “Never” or “Always.” Choice D is incorrect. This reflects all tablet users in the survey who did not answer “Never.” QUESTION 19 Choice D is correct. The vertex form of a quadratic equation is 2 y = n (x − h ) + k , where (h , k) gives the coordinates of the vertex of the parabola in the xy -plane and t he sign of the constant n determines whether the parabola opens upward or downward. If n is negative, the parabola opens downward and the vertex is the maximum. The given equation has the values h = 3, k = a, and n = −1. Therefore, the vertex of the parabola is (3, a ) and the parabola opens downward. Thus, the parabola’s maximum occurs at (3, a ). Choice A is incorrect and may result from interpreting the given equation as representing a parabola in which the vertex is a minimum, not a maximum, and from misidentifying the value of h in the given equation as −3 , not 3. Choice B is incorrect and may result from interpreting the given equation as representing a parabola in which the vertex is a minimum, not a maximum. Choice C is incorrect and may result from misidentifying the value of h in the given equation as not 3. −3 ,

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 416 QUESTION 20 Choice C is correct. Let m be the minimum value of the original data set. The range of a data set is the difference between the maximum value and the minimum value. The range of the original data set is therefore 84 − m . The new data set consists of the original set and the positive integer 96. Thus, the new data set has the same minimum m and a maximum of 96. Therefore, the range of the new data set is 96 − m . The difference in the two ranges can be found by subtracting the ranges: (96 − m ) − (84 − m). Using the distributive property, this can be rewritten as 96 − m − 84 + m, which is equal to 12. Therefore, the rang e of the new data set must be 12 greater than the range of the original data set. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Only the maximum value of the original data set is known, so the amount that the mean, median, and standard deviation of the new data set differ from those of the original data set can’t be determined. QUESTION 21 Choice B is correct. It’s given that Clayton uses 100 milliliters of the 20% by mass solution, so y = 100 . Substituting 100 for y in the given equation yields 0.10x + 0.20(100) = 0.18(x + 100), which can be rewritten as 0.10x + 20 = 0.18x + 18. Subtracting x 0.10 and 18 from both sides of the equation gives 2 = 0.08x . Dividing both sides of this equation by 0.08 gives x = 25. Thus, Clayton uses 25 milliliters of the 10% by mass saline solution. Choices A, C, and D ar e incorrect and may result from calculation errors. QUESTION 22 Choice D is correct. It’s given that the number of people Eleanor invited the first year was 30 and that the number of people invited doubles each of the following years, which is the same as increasing by a constant factor of 2. Therefore, the function f can be defined by f ( n ) = 30(2) n, where n is the number of years after Eleanor began organizing the event. This is an increasing exponential function. Choices A and B are incorrect. Linear functions increase or decrease by a constant number over equal intervals, and exponential functions increase or decrease by a constant factor over equal intervals. Since the number of people invited increases by a constant factor each year, the function f is exponential rather than linear. Choice C is incorrect. The value of f (n ) increases as n increases, so the function f is increasing rather than decreasing.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 417 QUESTION 23 Choice A is correct. The slope-intercept form of a linear equation in the xy-plane is y = mx + b, where m is the slope of the graph of the equation and b is the y-coordinate of the y -intercept of the graph. Any two ordered pairs (x 1, y 1) and (x 2, y 2) that satisfy a linear equation can be used to compute the slope of the graph of the equation using the formula m = y 2 − y 1 _x2 − x 1 . Substituting t he two pairs (a, 0) and (3a , −a) from the table into the formula gives m = _ 3a − a − a − 0 , which can be rewritten as − a _ 2a , or − 1_ 2 . Substituting t his value for m in the slope-intercept form of the equation produces y = − 1 _ 2 x + b . Substituting values from the ordered pair (a , 0) in the table into this equation produces 0 = − _ 2( a ) + b 1 , which simplifies to b = _ 2a . Substituting t his value for b in the slope- intercept form of the equation produces y = − 1 _ 2 x + a _ 2 . R ewriting this equation in standard form by adding _ 2 x 1 to both sides and t hen multiplying both sides by 2 gives the equation x + 2y = a. Choice B is incorrect and may result from a calculation error when determining the y -intercept of the graph of the equation. Choices C and D are incorrect and may result from an error in calculation when determining the slope of the graph of the equation. QUESTION 24 Choice B is correct. The slope-intercept form of a linear equation is y = mx + b , where m is the slope of the graph of the equation and b is the y-coordinate of the y -intercept of the graph. Any two ordered pairs ( x 1, y 1) and (x2, y 2) that satisfy a linear equation can be used to compute the slope of the graph of the equation using the formula m = 2 1_x2 − x 1 y − y . Substituting t he coordina tes of (120, 60) and (160, 80), which lie on t he line of best fit, into this formula gives m = _ 160 − 12080 − 60 , which simplifies to 20_ 40 , or 0.5. Substituting this value for m in the slope-int ercept form of the equation pr oduces y = 0.5x + b. Substituting values from the ordered pair (120, 60) into this equation produces 60 = 0.5(120) + b , so b = 0. Substituting this value for b in the slope-intercept form of the equation produces y = 0.5x + 0, or y = 0.5x . Choices A, C, and D ar e incorrect and may result from an error in calculation when determining the slope of the line of best fit. QUESTION 25 Choice A is correct. The intersection point (x , y) of the two graphs can be found by multiplying the second equation in the system 1.6x + 0.5y = −1.3 by 3, which gi ves 4.8x + 1.5y = −3.9. The y -terms in the equation 4.8x + 1.5y = −3.9 and the fir st equation in the system 2.4x − 1.5y = 0.3 have coefficients that are opposites. Adding the left- and right-hand sides of the equations 4.8x + 1.5y = −3.9 and 2.4x − 1.5 y = 0.3

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 418 produces 7.2x + 0.0y = −3.6 , which is equivalent to 7.2x = −3.6. Dividing both sides of the equation by 7.2 gives x = −0.5. Therefore, the x- coordinate of the intersection point (x , y) of the sy stem is −0.5. Choice B is incorr ect. An x-value of −0.25 pr oduces y-values of −0.6 and −1.8 f or each equation in the system, respectively. Since the same ordered pair doesn’t satisfy both equations, neither point can be the intersection point. Choice C is incorrect. An x -value of 0.8 produces y -values of 1.08 and −5.16 for each equa tion in the system, respectively. Since the same ordered pair doesn’t satisfy both equations, neither point can be the intersection point. Choice D is incorrect. An x -value of 1.75 pr oduces y-values of 2.6 and −8.2 for each equation in the system, respectively. Since the same ordered pair doesn’t satisfy both equations, neither point can be the intersection point. QUESTION 26 Choice D is correct. A model for a quantity that increases by r % per time period is an exponential function of t he form P (t ) = I (1+ r _ 100 )t , where I is the initial v alue at time t = 0 and each increase of t by 1 represents 1 time period. It’s given that P (t ) is the number of pollen grains per square centimeter and t is the number of years after the first year the grains were deposited. There were 310 pollen grains at time t = 0, so I = 310. This n umber increased 1% per year after year t = 0, so r = 1. Substituting these v alues into the form of the exponential function gives P (t ) = 310 1 + 1 _ 100 t , which can be rewritten as ( ) P (t ) = 310(1.01) t. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from errors made when setting up an exponential function. QUESTION 27 Choice A is correct. Subtracting ( 2 _ 3) (9x − 6) fr om both sides of the given equation yields −4 = 1 _ 3 (9x − 6)( ) , which can be rewritten as −4 = 3x − 2. Choices B and D are incorrect and may result from errors made when manipulating the equation. Choice C is incorrect. This is the value of x . QUESTION 28 Choice D is correct. The graph of a quadratic function in the form f ( x ) = a(x − b )(x − c ) intersects the x -axis at (b, 0) and ( c, 0). The graph will be a parabola that opens upward if a is positive and downward if a is negative. For the function f , a = 1, b = −3, and c = k. Therefore, the graph of the function f opens upward and intersects the x -axis at (−3, 0) and (k , 0). Since k is a positive integer, the intersection point (k , 0) will have an x -coordinate that is a positive integer. The only graph that opens upward, passes through the point (−3, 0), and has another x -intercept with a positive integer as the x -coordinate is choice D.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 419 Choices A and B are incorrect. Both graphs open downward rather than upward. Choice C is incorrect. The graph doesn’t pass through the point (−3, 0). QUESTION 29 Choice D is correct. It’s given that L is the femur length, in inches, and H is the height, in inches, of an adult male. Because L is multiplied by 1.88 in the equation, for every increase in L by 1, the value of H increases by 1.88. Therefore, the meaning of 1.88 in this context is that a man’s height increases by approximately 1.88 inches for each one- inch increase in his femur length. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from misinterpreting the context and the values the variables are representing. QUESTION 30 Choice A is correct. A segment can be drawn inside of quadrilateral ABCD from point B to point F (not shown) on segment AD such that segment BF is perpendicular to segment AD. This will create rectangl e FBCD such that FB = CD. This will also create right triangle ABF such that FB = 1 _ 2 AB . An acut e angle in a right triangle has measure 30° if and only if the side opposite this angle is half the length of the hypotenuse. (Such a triangle is called a 30°-60°-90° triangle.) Since AB is the hypotenuse of right triangle ABF and FB = _ 2AB 1 , triangl e ABF must be a 30°-60°-90° triangle and angle ABF must measure 60°. The measure of angle ABC equals the sum of the measures of angles ABF and FBC. Because angle FBC is in rectangle FBCD, it has a measure of 90°. Therefore, the measure of angle ABC, or angle B shown in the original figure, is 60° + 90° = 150° . Choice B is incorrect and may result from identifying triangle ABF as a 45°-45°-90° triangle and t he measure of angle ABF as 45°. Choice C is incorrect and may result from adding the measures of angles BAF and FBC rather than angles ABF and FBC. Choice D is incorrect and may result from finding the measure of angle D rat her than angle B . QUESTION 31 The correct answer is 6. It’s given that apples cost $0.65 each and oranges cost $0.75 each. If x is the number of apples, the cost for buying x apples is 0.65x dollars. If y is t he number of oranges, the cost for buying y oranges is 0.75y dollars. Lynne has $8.00 to spend; therefore, t he inequality for the number of apples and oranges Lynne can buy is 0.65x + 0.75y ≤ 8.00. Since Lynne bought 5 apples, x = 5. Substituting 5 for x yields 0.65(5) + 0.75y ≤ 8.00 , which can be rewritten as 3.25 + 0.75y ≤ 8.00. Subtracting 3.25 from both sides of the inequality yields 0.75y ≤ 4.75. Dividing both sides of this inequality by 0.75 yields y ≤ 6.33. Therefore, t he maximum number of whole oranges Lynne can buy is 6.

PART 4  | Eight Official Practice Tests with Answer Explanations 420 QUESTION 32 The correct answer is 146. According to the triangle sum theorem, the sum of the measures of the three angles of a triangle is 180°. This triangle is made up of angles with measures of a°, b°, and c°. Therefore, a + b + c = 180. Substituting 34 for a yields 34 + b + c = 180. Subtracting 34 from each side of the equation yields b + c = 146. QUESTION 33 The correct answer is 2500. The mean number of the list is found by dividing the sum of all the numbers in the list by the count of numbers in the list. It’s given that the mean of the five numbers in this list is 1600; therefore, 700 + 1200 + 1600 + 2000 + x ___ 5 = 1600. Multiplying both sides of this equation by 5 gives 700 + 1200 + 1600 + 2000 + x = 8000. The left-hand side of this equation can be rewritten as 5500 + x = 8000. Subtracting 5500 from both sides of this equation gives x = 2500. QUESTION 34 The correct answer is 34. Substituting the values y = 17 and x = a into the equation y = mx yields 17 = ma. Solving for a gives a = 17 _m . This can be substituted for a in x = 2a , which yields x = 2 ( 17 _ m ) , or x = 34 _m . Substituting x = 34 _m into the equation y = mx yields y = m (34 _ ) . m This equation can be rewritten as y = 34. QUESTION 35 The correct answer is 5 —2 . A pplying the distributive property of multiplication on the left-hand side of a (x + b ) = 4x + 10 yields ax + ab = 4x + 10. If a(x + b ) = 4x + 10 has infinitely many solutions, then ax + ab = 4x + 10 must be true for all values of x . It follows that ax = 4x and ab = 10. Since ax = 4x , it follows that a = 4. Substituting 4 for a in ab = 10 yields 4b = 10. Dividing both sides of 4b = 10 by 4 yields b = 10 _ 4 which simplifies to , 5_ 2 . Eit her 5/2 or 2.5 may be entered as the correct answer . QUESTION 36 The correct answer is 25 — If a line intersects a parabola at a point, 4 . the coordina tes of the intersection point must satisfy the equation of the line and the equation of the parabola. Since the equation of the line is y = c, where c is a constant, the y -coordinate of the intersection point must be c . It follows then that substituting c for y in the equation for the parabola will result in another true equation: c = −x 2 + 5x. Subtracting c from both sides of c = −x 2 + 5x and then dividing both sides by −1 yields 0 = x 2 − 5x + c . The solution to this quadratic equa tion would give the x -coordinate(s) of the point(s) of intersection.

ANS wER Ex PlANATIONS  | SAT Practice Test #10 421 Since it’s given that the line and parabola intersect at exactly one point, the equation 0 = x 2 − 5x + c has exactly one solution. A quadratic equation in the form 0 = ax 2 + bx + c has exactly one solution when its discriminant b 2 − 4ac is equal to 0. In the equation 0 = x 2 − 5x + c, a = 1, b = −5, and c = c. Therefore, (−5) 2 − 4(1)(c ) = 0, or 25 − 4c = 0. Subtracting 25 from both sides of 25 − 4c = 0 and then dividing both sides by −4 yields c = 25 _ 4 . Ther efore, if the line y = c intersects the parabola defined by y = − x 2 + 5x at exactly one point, then c = 25 _ 4 . Either 25/4 or 6.25 may be entered as the corr ect answer. QUESTION 37 The correct answer is 293. It’s given that a peregrine falcon’s maximum speed while diving is 200 miles per hour and that 1 mile = 5280 feet. Therefore, a peregrine falcon’s maximum speed while diving is (200 miles _ 1 hour )(5280 feet _ 1 mile ) = 1,056,000 feet per hour. There are 60 minutes in 1 hour and 60 seconds in each minute, so there are (60)(60) = 3600 seconds in 1 hour. A peregrine falcon’ s maximum speed while diving is therefor e (1,056,000 feet _ _ 1 hour )( 1 hour _ _ 3600 seconds ) , which is approximately 293.33 feet per second. To the nearest whole number, this is 293 feet per second. QUESTION 38 The correct answer is 9. If x is the number of hours it will take the falcon to dive 0.5 mile, then the speed of 200 miles per hour can be used to create the proportion 200 miles _ 1 hour= 0.5 mile _ x hours . This proportion can be rewritten as x hours = 0.5 mil e _ 200 miles _ hour , which gi ves x = 0.0025. There are 60 minutes in 1 hour and 60 seconds in each minute, so there are (60)(60) = 3600 seconds in one hour. Theref ore, 0.0025 hour is equivalent to (0.0025 hour) 3600 seconds _ _ 1 hour = 9 ( ) seconds.

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