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PSAT/NMSQT ® Practice Test #1 Answer Explanations

Table of Contents: R eading Test Answer Explanations .............................................................................. 1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations .................................................... 29 Math Test – No Calculator Answer Explanations ..................................................... 52 Math Test – Calculator Answer Explanations ........................................................... 66 Answer Key .................................................................................................................. 93 User Notes: Please have a copy of the PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 to reference for the passages and other information that form the basis for the questions in the Evidence- Based Reading and Writing and the Math sections of the Practice Test. Y ou can also refer to the test to see the information given to students about math formulas and how to record the student -produced responses. I n this document, we have provided the following for each question: • difficulty level • content description • best or correct answer • answer explanation © 2015 The College Board. PSAT/NMSQT is a registered trademark of the College Board and National Merit Scholarship Corporation. All other products and services may be trademarks of their respective owners. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.

P SAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 1 The main purpose of the passage is to (A) describe a main character and a significant change in her life. (B) provide an overview of a family and a nearby neighbor. (C) discuss some regrettable personality flaws in a main character. (D) explain the relationship between a main character and her father. I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing purpose Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. Emma Woodhouse’s life and family are discussed, including the marriage of her governess Miss Taylor who then moves out of Emma’s home. In line 74, Emma wonders how she is to “bear the change” of Miss Taylor’s departure, which indicates its significance. C hoices B and D are incorrect because the passage focuses more on Emma than on her family and neighbors, and Emma’s relationship with her father is a relatively minor consideration. Choice C is also incorrect because Emma is characterized as handsome and clever with a happy disposition, and her arrogance is only briefly mentioned. Question 2 Which choice best summarizes the first two paragraphs of the passage (lines 1-14)? (A) Even though a character loses a parent at an early age, she is happily raised in a loving home. (B) An affectionate governess helps a character to overcome the loss of her mother, despite the indifference of her father. (C) Largely as a result of her father’s wealth and affection, a character leads a contented life. (D) A character has a generally comfortable and fulfilling life, but then she must recover from losing her mother. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Information and Ideas / Summarizing Best Answer: A Page 1

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice A is the best answer. The passage indicates that Emma’s mother died long ago and that Emma barely remembers her. Emma is raised by an affectionate father and governess and is described as a person with a happy disposition. C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect : Emma's father is not described as indifferent, Emma is not described as contented because of her father’s wealth, and Emma does not appear to suffer from the loss of her mother. Question 3 The narrator indicates that the particular nature of Emma’s upbringing resulted in her being (A) despondent. (B) self-satisfied. (C) friendless. (D) inconsiderate. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. According to the passage, Emma had “a disposition to think a little too well of herself” (line 30). Thinking a “little too well of herself” means that Emma had an elevated opinion of herself, or that she was self - satisfied. C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because Emma’s relationship with her father and Miss Taylor, the two characters who raised her, did not result in her being despondent, friendless, or inconsiderate. Question 4 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 1 -5 (“Emma . . . her”) (B) Lines 9-14 (“Her . . . affection”) (C) Lines 28-32 (“The real . . . enjoyments”) (D) Lines 32-34 (“The danger . . . her”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. Lines 28- 32 state that “The real evils indeed of Emma’s situation were the power of having rather too much her own way, and a Page 2

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations di sposition to think a little too well of herself; these were the disadvantages which threatened alloy to her many enjoyments.” Thinking a “little too well of herself” means that Emma had an elevated opinion of herself, or that she was self - satisfied. C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best evidence for Emma being self -satisfied. Choice A describes Emma’s positive traits, choice B describes Emma’s affectionate relationship with Miss Taylor, and choice D discusses only that Emma’s problems were negligible. Question 5 As used in line 26, “ directed” most nearly means (A) trained. (B) aimed. (C) guided. (D) addressed. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phrases in context Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. In lines 25- 27, Emma’s situation is described as “doing just what she liked; highly esteeming Miss Taylor’s judgment, but directed chiefly by her own.” In other words, Emma respects Miss Taylor’s opinion but makes decisions directed, or guided, primarily by her own opinion. Ch oices A, B, and D are incorrect because lines 25- 27 emphasize that in “doing what she liked” Emma was directed, or guided, by her own opinion. Emma’s opinion is not trained by, aimed at, or addressed by anyone else. Question 6 As used in line 54, “want” most nearly means (A) desire. (B) lack. (C) requirement. (D) request. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phrases in context Best Answer: B Page 3

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice B is the best answer. Lines 53- 55 describe how Emma felt a loss after Miss Taylor married and moved out of Emma’s home: “but it was a black morning’s work for her. The want of Miss Taylor would be felt every hour of every day.” In this context, “want” means “lack.” C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “want” does not mean desire, requirement, or request. Question 7 It can most reasonably be inferred that after Miss Taylor married, she had (A) less patience with Mr. Woodhouse. (B) fewer interactions with Emma. (C) more close friends than Emma. (D) an increased appreciation for Emma. I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. According to lines 76- 81, following Miss Taylor’s marriage, “Emma was aware that great must be the difference between a Mrs. Weston only half a mile from them, and a Miss Taylor in the house; and with all her advantages, natural and domestic, she was now in great danger of suffering from intellectual solitude.” This implies t hat since Miss Taylor’s marriage, the two characters see each other less often. C hoice A is incorrect because the passage does not mention Miss Taylor’s relationship with Mr. Woodhouse. Choices C and D are incorrect because the passage describes how Miss Taylor’s marriage might affect Emma but not how the marriage might affect Miss Taylor. Question 8 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Line 37 (“Miss . . . married”) (B) Lines 47 -48 (“The event . . . frie nd”) (C) Lines 61 -66 (“A large . . . recollection”) (D) Lines 74 -81 (“How . . . solitude”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: D Page 4

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice D is the best answer because lines 74 -81 refer to Emma’s new reality of “intellectual solitude” after Miss Taylor moved out of the house. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these choices support the idea that Miss Taylor and Emma had fewer interactions following Miss Taylor’s marriage. Choice A mentions Emma’s “sorrow” towards losing Miss Taylor, choice B introduces how Miss Taylor may benefit from the marriage, and choice C describes Emma’s and Miss Taylor’s close friendship. Question 9 Which situation is most similar to the one described in lines 84 -92 (“The evil . . . time”)? (A) A mother and her adult son have distinct tastes in art and music that result in repeated family arguments. (B) The differences between an older and a younger friend are magnified because the younger one is more ac tive and athletic. (C) An older and a younger scientist remain close friends despite the fact that the older one’s work is published more frequently. (D) The age difference between a high school student and a college student becomes a problem even though they enjoy the same diversions. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. Lines 84- 92 describe the fact that though Emma and her father have a loving relationship, Mr. Woodhouse is much older than Emma and in poor health. For these reasons, he did not make a good companion for the spirited, young Emma. Their relationship is most similar to a friendship between an older and younger person that is negatively affected by the fact one is more lively and active than the other. C hoice A is incorrect because Emma and her father did not have regular arguments. Choice C is incorrect because the relationship between Emma and Mr. Woodhouse was affected by the difference in their age and activity, not any relative successes one or the other might have had. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication that Emma and her father enjoyed the same activities. Page 5

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 10 As used in line 10, “plot” most nearly means (A) mark. (B) form. (C) plan. (D) claim. I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phrases in context Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. The first paragraph discusses the “vast informal economy driven by human relationships” (lines 6- 7) that existed in the Soviet Union as a result of the gaps in the official economy. Lines 9-10 state that “The Soviet people didn’t plot how they would build these [social] networks.” In this context, the word “plot” means “plan”; the paragraph is implying that the informal economy grew up spontaneously, without premeditation or planning. C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context “plot” does not mean mark, form, or claim. Question 11 The references to the shoemak er, the programmer, and the apple farmer in lines 37 -40 (“We can easily . . . community”) primarily serve to (A) illustrate the quality of products and services in countries around the world. (B) emphasize the broad reach of technologies used to connect people. (C) demonstrate that recommendations made online are trustworthy. (D) call attention to the limits of the expansion of the global economy. I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing text structure Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. The third paragraph of the passage (lines 27-46) describes how new technologies are affecting new economies, as people are using social media to vet people and businesses through eBay, Twitter, Facebook, and YouTube. The author uses broad examples (a business in South America, a person in Asia, and a farmer in the reader’s local community) to imply that these technologies have a global reach. C hoice A is incorrect because the passage provides no comment about the quality of products or services. Choice C is incorrect because the passage never alludes to Page 6

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations t he trustworthiness of online recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because the idea that the new global economy will have only a limited expansion is oppositional to the passage’s main points. Question 12 The passage’s discussion of life in the Soviet Union in the 1960s and 1970s primarily serves to (A) introduce the concept of social networking. (B) demonstrate that technology has improved social connections. (C) list differences between the Soviet Union and other countries. (D) emphasize the importance of examining historical trends. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing text structure Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. The Soviet Union of the 1960s and 1970s was most notable for the disparity between its official economy and a second, unofficial one. The author explains how unwanted items sold at state stores were not the “nice furnishings” found in people’s homes. These “nice furnishings” were a result of the Soviet Union’s unofficial economy driven by social networking, or “relationship- driven economics” (lines 16 -17). C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because the author does not use the discussion of life in the Soviet Union in the 1960s and 1970s to show how technology has changed social conditions, how the Soviet Union was different from other countries, or how important it is to consider historical trends. Question 13 As used in line 45, “post” most nearly means (A) publish. (B) transfer. (C) assign. (D) denounce. I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phrases in context Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. The third paragraph of the passage (lines 27-46) describes how new technology has impacted the economy. The author states that Page 7

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations peopl e can use websites to post descriptions of projects, which means that people can write these descriptions and publish them online. C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “post” does not mean transfer, assign, or denounce. Question 14 The author indicates that, in comparison to individuals, traditional organizations have tended to be (A) more innovative and less influential. (B) larger in size a nd less subject to regulations. (C) less reliable and less interconnected. (D) less efficient and more expensive. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Understanding relationships Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. The passage explains that socially driven economies create new societies where “amplified individuals —individuals empowered with technologies and the collective intelligence of others in their social network —can take on many functions that previously only large organizations could perform, often more efficiently, at lower cost or no cost at all, and with much greater ease” (lines 66 -72). It is clear from these lines that the author views some large organizations as less efficient and more expensive than individuals . C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because the passage offers no evidence that the author believes traditional organizations are more innovative, less regulated, or less reliable than individuals. Question 15 Which choice provides the best evidence fo r the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 22 -26 (“Empowered . . . connectedness”) (B) Lines 40 -42 (“We no longer . . . ideas”) (C) Lines 47 -50 (“We are moving . . . socialstructing”) (D) Lines 66 -72 (“amplified . . . ease”) I tem Difficulty: Med ium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: D Page 8

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice D is the best answer. Lines 66- 72 explain how socially driven economies are creating societies where individuals no longer rely on traditional organizations to perform specific tasks. Instead, individuals can use technology and social relationships to more efficiently perform these tasks at a lower cost. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly compare individuals to traditional organizations. Question 16 The author recognizes counterarguments to the position she takes in the passage by (A) acknowledging the risks and drawbacks associated with new technologies and social networks. (B) admitting that some people spend too much time unproductively on the Internet. (C) drawing an analogy between conditions today and conditions in the Soviet Union of the 1960s and 1970s. (D) conceding that the drawbacks of socialstructing may prove over time to outweigh the benefits. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing arguments Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answ er. While the author argues throughout the passage that new technologies benefit modern economies, she also recognizes that some people believe this new technology “distances us from the benefits of face- to-face communication and quality social time” (lines 86- 87). C hoice B is incorrect because the author provides no evidence of Internet overuse. Choice C is incorrect because the author provides an example of the Soviet Union of the 1960s and 1970s to explain an economic process called “socialstructing.” C hoice D is incorrect because the author concludes that socialstructing may ultimately be “opening up new opportunities to create, learn, and share” (lines 91 -92). Page 9

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 17 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous quest ion? (A) Lines 35 -37 (“We can look . . . videos”) (B) Lines 74 -76 (“a world . . . hackers”) (C) Lines 79 -84 (“They . . . science”) (D) Lines 85 -87(“Much . . . time”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer as it acknowledges that people have identified some risks and drawbacks to using new technology to form social connections. Some people believe that new technology distances users from the advantages of “face - to -fac e communication and quality social time” (lines 86- 87). C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not show that the author recognized counterarguments to her argument. Choices A and B provide examples of the impact and use of the new technologies, and choice C summarizes the benefits of socialstructing. Question 18 Which statement best summarizes the information presented in the graph? (A) Far more people around the world own computers and cell phones today than in 2005. (B) The number of people sharing digital information has more than tripled since 2005. (C) The volume of digital information created and shared has increased tremendously in recent years. (D) The amount of digital information created and shared is likely to be almost 8 zettabytes in 2015. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Synthesis / Analyzing quantitative information Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. The graph shows a steady increase in digital information created and shared in recent years, beginning with less than one zettabyte in 2005 and rising to nearly 8 zettabytes projected for 2015. Page 10

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not summarize the information presented in the graph. Choices A and B provide details that, while likely true, cannot be directly inferred from the information in the graph, and choice D provides a detail from the graph but not a summary o f it. Question 19 According to the graph, which statement is true about the amount of digital information projected to be created and shared globally in 2012? (A) Growth in digital information creation and sharing was projected to be wildly out of proportion to growth in 2011 and 2013E. (B) The amount of digital information created and shared was projected to begin a new upward trend. (C) The amount of digital information created and shared was projected to peak. (D) The amount of digital information crea ted and shared was projected to pass 2 zettabytes for the first time. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Synthesis / Analyzing quantitative information Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. The graph shows that the amount of digital information projected to be created and shared in 2012 is about 2.5 zettabytes. Since the graph shows a steady increase in the creation and sharing of digital information, and the digital information created and shared in 2011 was approximately 1.75 zettabytes, the graph shows that the 2012 projections passes the 2 zettabyte barrier for the first time. C hoice A is incorrect because the graph shows the projected 2012 numbers to be part of a steady increase consistent with the 2011 and 2013E numbers. Choice B is incorrect because the graph projects the 2012 number to continue the increase started in 2005. Choice C is incorrect because the 2012 numbers are projected to continue increasing through at least 2015. Page 11

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 20 The passage is written from the perspective of someone who is A) actively involved in conducting hibernator research. B) a participant in a recent debate in the field of cardiology. C) knowledgeable about advances in hibernator research. D) an advocate for wildlife preservation. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing point of view Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. The author is someone who knows about advances in hibernator research but isn’t necessarily an active participant in that research. C hoice A is incorrect because the passage mentions that “Fröbert and his colleagues” (line 32) are conducting hibernator research. Choice B is incorrect because the passage discusses the heart health of bears but never provides evidence that this research is contested. Choice D is incorrect because the passage focuses on hibernating animals and their health more than wildlife preservation. Question 21 It is reasonable to conclude that the main goal of the scientists conducting the research described in the passage is to A)learn how the hibernation patterns of bears and squirrels differ. B) determine the role that fat plays in hibernation. C) illustrate the important health benefits of exercise for humans. D) explore possible ways to prevent human diseases. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. The author begins the passage by suggesting that the bear hibernation research may be beneficial to human health: “Understanding how hibernators, including ground squirrels, marmots and bears, survive their long winter’s naps may one day offer solutions for problems such as heart disease, osteoporosis and muscular dystrophy” (lines 1-5). In the last paragraph of the passage, the author suggests that Fröbert hopes to use his research findings to “stave off hardened arteries in humans as well” (lines 76- 77). C hoice A is incorrect because the passage briefly mentions ground squirrels and does not specifically compare them to bears. Choice B is incorrect becaus e the passage clearly states that during hibernation fat acts as fuel for a resting animal. Page 12

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice C is incorrect because the passage discusses exercise only within the context of bears. Question 22 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 1 -5 (“Understanding . . . dystrophy”) B) Lines 10 -13 (“Fat . . . squirrels”) C) Lines 31 -35 (“To . . . bears”) D) Lines 42 -46 (“Once . . . tissues”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. This sentence supports the idea that one of the goals of the hibernation research discussed in the passage is to try to improve human health: “Understanding how hibernators, including ground squirrels, marmots and bears, survive their long winter’s naps may one day offer solutions for problems such as heart disease, osteoporosis and muscular dystrophy” (lines 1 -5). C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the main goal of t he hibernator research. Choice B is incorrect because lines 10 -13 describe only one aspect of hibernation: fat as fuel. Choices C and D are incorrect because lines 31 -35 and 42- 46 describe the field research, not the goal of this research. Question 23 What main effect do the quotations by Andrews in lines 10 -18 have on the tone of the passage? A) They create a bleak tone, focusing on the difficulties hibernators face during the winter. B) They create a conversational tone, relating scientific information in everyday language. C) They create an ominous tone, foreshadowing the dire results of Andrews’s research. D) They create an absurd tone, using images of animals acting as if they were human. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing word cho ice Best Answer: B Page 13

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice B is the best answer. In lines 10- 18 the molecular biologist Matthew Andrews explains how fat is important to hibernating animals, stating “‘Fat is where it’s at’” and “‘You bring your own lunch with you.’” The use of this nonscientific language creates a conversational tone that allows readers to understand what might otherwise be a complex topic. C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because Andrews’s phrases, such as “‘Fat is where it’s at,’” are relaxed rather than bleak, ominous, or absurd. Question 24 As used in line 19, “stores” most nearly means A) preservatives. B) reserves. C) stacks. D) shelters. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phrases in context Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. Lines 19- 20 describe how fat is important to hibernating animals, as “[b]igger fat stores mean a greater chance of surviving until spring.” In this context, hibernating animals have “stores,” or reserves, of fat that they put away for l ater use. C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “stores” does not mean preservatives, stacks, or shelters. Question 25 Based on the passage, what is Fröbert’s hypothesis regarding why bears’ arteries do not harden during hibernation? A) The bears’ increased plasma cholesterol causes the arteries to be more flexible. B) Sluggish circulation pinches off the blood vessels rather than hardening the arteries. C) Bears exercise in short, infrequent bursts during hibernation, which staves off hardened arteries. D) Bears possess a molecule that protects against hardened arteries. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: D Page 14

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice D is the best answer. The passage concludes by noting that “Fröbert hopes to find some protective molecule that could stave off hardened arteries in humans as well” (lines 75 -77). This makes clear the scientist’s belief that even though bears begin hibernation while “‘very, very fat’” (lines 62- 63) and do not exercise for many months, these animals have some molecule that protects them from hardened arteries. C hoices A and B are incorrect because lines 58- 69 explain that the bears’ elevated plasma cholesterol levels combined with the sluggish circulation that results from their lack of exercise during hibernation “are a recipe for hardened arteries” (lines 67- 68). Choice C is incorrect because lines 63- 64 state that hibernating bears “get zero exercise during hibernation.” Question 26 Which choice provides the best evide nce for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 19 -20 (“Bigger . . . spring”) B) Lines 24 -27 (“The brown . . . day”) C) Lines 70 -73 (“Even . . . streaks”) D) Lines 74 -77 (“It’s . . . well”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. The passage concludes by noting that “Fröbert hopes to find some protective molecule that could stave off hardened arteries in humans as well” (lines 75 -77). This sentence explains Fröbert’s hypothesis that the reason bears do not “build up such artery -hardening streaks” (lines 72 -73) is because they have some molecule that protects them from hardened arteries. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address Fröbert’s hypothesis. Choice A is incorrect because lines 19- 20 highlight the importance of fat to hibernators. Choice B is incorrect because lines 24 -27 describe the diet of one group of hibernating bears. Choice C is incorrect because lines 70- 73 describe the hardening of arteries in inactive humans. Page 15

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 27 What information discussed in paragraph 10 (lines 58 -69) is represented by the graph? A) The information in lines 58 -62 (“Recent . . . reported”) B) The information in lines 62 -64 (“These . . . hibernation”) C) The information in lines 64 -66 (“Lolling . . . circulation”) D) The information in lines 67 -69 (“It’s . . . strokes”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Synthesis / Analyzing quantitative information Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. The graph compares the total plasma cholesterol found in seven bears during periods of their hibernation and nonhibernation, exemplifying how that cholesterol is generally higher during the hibernating stage. Meanwhile, lines 58- 62 describe the very phenomena that the graph depicts: “Recent analyses revealed that Scandinavian brown bears spend the summer with plasma cholesterol levels considered high for humans; those values then increase substantially for hibernation, Fröbert and his colleagues reported.” C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because none of the other lines in paragraph 10 discuss the comparative levels of plasma cholesterol found in bears during their hibernating and nonhibernating phases. Lines 62- 64 describe how bears spend their hibernating phase. Lines 64 -66 describe the poor circulation those bears experience during hibernation. Lines 67- 69 explain the heart risks that may occur in humans who are overweight and inactive. Question 28 Which statement about the effect of hibernation on the seven bears is best supported by the graph? A) Only one of the bears did not experience an appreciable change in its total plasma cholesterol level. B) Only one of the bears experienced a significant increase in its total plasma cholesterol level. C) All of the bears achieved the desirable plasma cholesterol level for humans. D) The bear with the lowest total plasma cholesterol level in its active state had the highest total plasma cholesterol level during hibernation. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Synthesis / Analyzing quantitative information Best Answer: A Page 16

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice A is the best answer because the graph shows that six of the seven bears experienced increased plasma cholesterol during hibernation; the seventh bear experienced neither an increase nor a decrease in plasma cholesterol. C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not supported by the graph. Question 29 Which choice best describes the structure of the first paragraph? (A) A personal history is narrated, historical examples are given, and a method is recommended. (B) A position is stated, historical context is given, and earnest advice is given. (C) Certain principles are stated, opposing principles are stated, and a consensus is reached. (D) A historical period is described, and its attribu tes are reviewed. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing text structure Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. In the first paragraph, Andrew Carnegie states his position that the changes in society that are occurring are “not to be deplored, but welcomed as highly beneficial” (lines 12 -13). After providing historical context on the interactions between rich and poor, Carnegie concludes the first paragraph by giving earnest advice: “It is a waste of time to criticize the inevitable” (lines 27- 28). C hoice A is incorrect because the first paragraph emphasizes the current realities of humanity as a whole —the very “conditions of human life” (lines 4 -5) —but not any one personal history. Choice C is incorrect because the first paragraph describes the author’s personal opinion and his conclusion, not a conclusion reached by a consensus. Choice D is incorrect because the first paragraph focuses more on “our age” (line 1) than on the past. Page 17

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 30 The author most strongly implies which of the following about “the ties of brotherhood” (line 2)? (A) They were always largely fictitious and are more so at present. (B) They are stronger at present than they ever were before. (C) They are more seriously strained in the present than in the past. (D) They will no longer be able to bring together the rich and the poor. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. Carnegie states in lines 1 -4 that a serious problem of his time was how to distribute wealth so that “the ties of brotherhood may still bind together the rich and poor in harmonious relationship.” In other words, he was concerned that the “ties of brotherhood” between rich and poor were not as strong as they used to be. C hoice A is incorrect because Carnegie implies that changes in modern society have negatively impacted the relationship between the rich and poor, but he does not suggest that such a relationship never existed. Choice B is incorrect because the passage implies that “the ties of brotherhood” are weaker than they were previously. Choice D is incorrect because Carnegie states that these ties continue and “may still bind together the rich and poor in harmonious relationship.” Question 31 The author uses “dwelling, dress, food, and environment” (lines 7-8) as examples of (A) things more valued in the present than in the past. (B) bare necessities of life. (C) things to which all people are entitled. (D) possible indications of differences in status. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing text structure Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. Carnegie explains that the contrast between the r ich and poor is greater than in the past: “In former days there was little difference between the dwelling, dress, food, and environment of the chief and those of his retainers…” (lines 6- 9). Carnegie uses the examples of “dwelling, dress, food, and environment” to show the difference in status between the rich and the poor. Page 18

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice A is incorrect because Carnegie does not suggest that basic necessities, like food and housing, are more valued in the present than they were in the past. Choice B is incorrect because, while these aspects of life are basic necessities, they are used here as examples of areas in which differences in status might be evident. Choice C is incorrect because Carnegie is not using these examples to suggest that “dwelling, dress, food, and environment” are things to which all people are entitled. Question 32 The author describes the people who live in the “houses of some” (line 15) as interested in the (A) materials from which their houses are constructed. (B) size of their homes. (C) advantages of culture. (D) pedigree of their guests. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. In lines 14- 18 Carnegie states that it is “essential, for the progress of the race that the houses of some should be homes for all that is highest and best in literature and the arts, and for all the refinements of civilization, rather than that none should be so.” Carnegie is suggesting that “houses of some” should be filled with people who care a great deal about culture, or the “highest and best in literature and the arts.” C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because lines 14- 18 explicitly state that the people who live in the “houses of some” care a great deal about culture, not that they care about what materials their homes are made of, the size of those homes, or the pedigree of their guests. Question 33 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 9 -10 (“the palace . . . laborer” ) (B) Lines 15-16 (“all . . . arts”) (C) Lines 18-19 (“Much . . . squalor”) (D) Lines 19-20(“Without . . . Maecenas”) I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: B Page 19

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice B is the best answer. In lines 15-1 6 Carnegie advocates that the “houses of some” should be filled with people who care a great deal about culture, such as “all that is highest and best in literature and the arts.” C hoices A and C are incorrect because lines 9- 10 and 18-19 highlight a disparity in wealth between the rich and poor but do not specifically mention people who live in the “houses of some.” Choice D is incorrect because in lines 19- 20 Carnegie is suggesting that patrons of the arts exist because of wealth. Question 34 The autho r uses the phrase “good old times” (line 20) as an example of (A) a cliché that still has life and usefulness left in it. (B) a bit of folk wisdom from his childhood. (C) something said by those who have acquired great riches. (D) something said by people who do not share his viewpoint. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing word choice Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. Carnegie uses quotation marks around the phrase the “good old times” to suggest that others refer to the past as the “good old times.” However, Carnegie states that these “‘good old times’ were not good old times. Neither master nor servant was as well situated then as to- day” (lines 20-22), which suggests that Carnegie does not believe that things were better in the past. C hoice A is incorrect because Carnegie immediately refutes the usefulness of the cliché by saying that the “‘good old times” were not good old times.” Choice B is incorrect because the passage provides no evidence that the saying com es from Carnegie’s childhood. Choice C is incorrect because there is no evidence that the phrase the “good old times” is a cliché used by the wealthy. Question 35 What is the author’s main point about the disadvantages of the modern economic system? (A) It provides only a few people with the advantages of culture. (B) It replicates many of the problems experienced in the past. (C) It creates divisions between different categories of people. (D) It gives certain people great material advantages over other s. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Determining central ideas and themes Best Answer: C Page 20

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations C hoice C is the best answer. Lines 47- 60 explain that by Carnegie’s time standards of living had raised significantly, and that the cost of this increase is that “All intercourse between [rich and poor] is at an end. Rigid castes are formed . . .” (lines 65 -66). A disadvantage of the modern economic system, in other words, is that divisions exist between classes and types of people. C hoice A is incorrect because Carnegie says it is “essential” that some people have access to high culture (line 14). Choice B is incorrect because Carnegie argues that the “conditions of human life have not only been changed, but revolutionized, within the past few hundred years” (lines 4 -6) and does not suggest that the modern economic system replicates past problems. Choice D is incorrect because Carnegie writes “Much better this great irregularity than universal squalor” (lines 18- 19). Question 36 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 37 -39 (“The master . . . conditions”) (B) Lines 43-45 (“There was . . . State”) (C) Lines 46-47 (“The inevitable . . . prices”) (D) Lines 65-66 (“All intercourse . . . end”) Item Difficulty: Hard Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. Lines 47- 60 explain that by Carnegie’s time standards of living had raised significantly, with lines 61 -62 then explaining that those increases came at a cost: “The price we pay for this salutary change is, no doubt, great.” Lines 65 -66 explains what that cost, or disadvantage, is: “All intercourse between [rich and poor] is at an end.” A disadvantage of the modern economic system, in ot her words, is that it creates divisions between classes and types of people. C hoice A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that Carnegie believes there are disadvantages to the modern economic system. Choices A and B are incorrect because lines 37- 39 and 43-45 explain what life was like “Formerly,” in the time of master and apprentice, before the modern economic system came to exist. Choice C is incorrect because lines 46- 47 also describes a condition of a time before the modern economic system. Page 21

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 37 As used in line 82, “in its train” is closest in meaning to (A) before it. (B) with it. (C) anticipating it. (D) advancing it. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phrases in context Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. In the final paragraph of the passage, Carnegie writes of the “law of competition” (lines 76 -77), explaining that the law has some costs but also provides improved living conditions for everyone “in its train.” Saying these conditions come “in the train” of the law means they accompany the law or come with it. C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “in its train” does not mean precede the law, predict the arrival of the law, or help advance the law. Question 38 The author of Passage 1 suggests that the usefulness of de -extinction technology may be limited by the (A) amount of time scientists are able to devote to genetic research. (B) relationship of an extinct species to contemporar y ecosystems. (C) complexity of the DNA of an extinct species. (D) length of time that a species has been extinct. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. Lines 9 -11 explain that, although some extinct species can be brought back to life, “Only species whose DNA is too old to be recovered, such as dinosaurs, are the ones to consider totally extinct, bodily and genetically.” The determining factor is the length of time that species has been extinct. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because lines 9- 11 explicitly state that only DNA that is “too old to be recovered” determines whether a species can be brought back to life, not the amount of time scientists devote to genetic research, the relationship between an extinct species and contemporary ecosystems, or how complex a species’ DNA might be. Page 22

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 39 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 7 -9 (“Thanks . . . life”) (B) Lines 9-11 (“Only . . . genetically”) (C) Line 13 (“It will be . . . difficult”) (D) Lines 13-14 (“It will take . . . succeed”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: B Choice B is the best answer. Lines 9 -11 state that species that have DNA that is “too old to be recovered” cannot be brought back to life. C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate any limits to de- extinction technology. Choice A is incorrect because lines 7- 9 explain only that the use of DNA can lead to certain species being brought back to life. Choices C and D are incorrect because line 13 and lines 13 -14 explain some challenges to bringing back certain species but do not explain the limits to de- extinction technology. Question 40 As used in line 27, “deepest” most nearly means (A) most engrossing. (B) most challenging. (C) most extensive. (D) most fundamental. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phrases in context Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer. Lines 24- 27 explain that “Just the thought of mammoths and passenger pigeons alive again invokes the awe and wonder that drives all conservation at its deepest level.” The author of Passage 1 is suggesting that the “prospect of de -extinction” (line 21) evokes the same emotions of “awe and wonder” that propel conservation efforts at its deepest, or most fundamental, level. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context the “deepest” level of conservation does not mean the most engrossing level, most challenging level, or most extensive level. Page 23

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 41 The authors of Passage 2 indicate that the matter of shrinking biodiversity should primarily be considered a (A) historical anomaly. (B) global catastrophe. (C) scientific curiosity. (D) political problem. It em Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Reading closely Best Answer: B Choi ce B is the best answer. “Shrinking biodiversity” means the loss of species, and the authors of Passage 2 clearly state that shrinking biodiversity is a global issue: “Species today are vanishing in such great numbers —many from hunting and habitat destruction —that the trend has been called a sixth mass extinction, an event on par with such die- offs as the one that befell the dinosaurs 65 million years ago” (37 -41). Labeling this loss of diversity a “mass extinction,” shows that the authors believe this situation is serious and widespread. Choi ce A is incorrect because the passage states the current loss of biodiversity w ould be a “sixth” mass extinction, indicating that the occurrence is far from an anomaly (or abnormality). Choices C and D are incorrect because the authors of Passage 2 do not primarily present the shrinking biodiversity as a scientific curiosity or a political problem. Question 42 Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? (A) Lines 37 -41 (“Species . . . ago”) (B) Lines 42-45 (“A program . . . woes”) (C) Lines 53-56 (“Against . . . irresponsible”) (D) Lines 65-67 (“ Such . . . grave”) It em Difficulty: Medium Content: Information and Ideas / Citing textual evidence Best Answer: A Choi ce A is the best answer. Lines 37- 41 label the shrinking biodiversity as a global catastrophe, as it is “a sixth mass extinction, an event on par with such die -offs as the one that befell the dinosaurs 65 million years ago.” Labeling this loss of Page 24

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations di versity a “mass extinction” implies the authors’ belief that this shrinking biodiversity is serious and widespread. C hoices B, C, and D do not explain the authors’ opinions on shrinking biodiversity. Choices B and C are incorrect because lines 42 -45 and 53- 56 describe what the authors view as possible problems with de- extinction. Choice D is incorrect because lines 65-6 7 provide one reason to continue with de -extinction programs. Question 43 As used in line 37, “great” most nearly means (A) lofty. (B) wonderful. (C) large. (D) intense. I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Information and Ideas / Interpreting words and phras es in context Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. Lines 37- 40 state that “species today are vanishing at such great numbers” that the loss of these species is considered a “sixth mass extinction.” In this context, there is a “great,” or large, num ber of species at risk of extinction. C hoice A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context, “great,” does not mean lofty, wonderful, or intense. Question 44 The reference to the “black -footed ferret and the northern white rhino” (line 64) serves mainly to (A) emphasize a key distinction between extinct and living species. (B) account for types of animals whose numbers are dwindling. (C) provide examples of species whose gene pools are compromised. (D) highlight instances of animals that have failed to adapt to new habitats. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Rhetoric / Analyzing text structure Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. The authors of Passage 2 suggest that de- extinction may “help save endangered species.” (line 60). Lines 61-64 provide an example of how de -extinction could be beneficial: “For example, extinct versions of genes Page 25

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations c ould be reintroduced into species and subspecies that have lost a dangerous amount of genetic diversity, such as the black -footed ferret and the northern white rhino.” In this context, the black- footed ferret and northern white rhino are used as examples of species that have lost genetic diversity; in other words, they are species whose gene pools have been compromised. C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because lines 61- 64 clearly identify the black - footed ferret and the northern white rhino as species whose gene pools have been compromised. They are not highlighted to emphasize any difference between extinct and living species, to explain why the numbers of some animals are dwindling, or to describe species that failed to adapt to new environments. Question 45 Which choice best states the relationship between the two passages? (A) Passage 2 attacks a political decision that Passage 1 strongly advocates. (B) Passage 2 urges caution regarding a technology that Passage 1 describes in favorable terms. (C) Passage 2 expands on the results of a research study mentioned in Passage 1. (D) Passage 2 considers practical applications that could arise from a theory discussed in Passage 1. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Synthesis / Analyzing multiple texts Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer. Passage 1 enthusiastically supports the idea of de- extinction, saying it is “profound news. That something as irreversible and final as extinction might be reversed is a stunning realization” (lines 22- 24). Passage 2, on the other hand, recognizes the “gee -whiz appeal” (line 29) of de -extinction but is less certain about its implementation: “Yet with limited intellectual bandwidth and financial resources to go around, de- extinction threatens to divert attention from the modern biodiversity crisis” (lines 30 -33). Therefore, Passage 2 urges restraint for an idea that Passage 1 enthusiastically supports. C hoice A is incorrect because neither passage focuses on a political decision. Choice C is incorrect because Passage 1 does not mention a research study. Choice D is incorrect because Passage 2 does not consider practical uses (or “applications”) of de -extinction as much as the practical problems that result from its use. Page 26

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 46 How would the authors of Passage 2 most likely respond to the “prospect” referred to in line 21, Passage 1? (A) With approval, because it illustrates how useful de -extinction could be in addressing widespread environmental concerns. (B) With resignation, because the gradual extinction of many living species is inevitable. (C) With concern, because it implies an easy solution to a difficult problem. (D) With disdai n, because it shows that people have little understanding of the importance of genetic diversity. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Synthesis / Analyzing multiple texts Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. The author of passage is amazed by the idea of de- extinction, while the authors of passage 2 warn that a “program to restore extinct species poses a risk of selling the public on a false promise that technology alone can solve our ongoing environmental woes” (lines 42 -45). This statement shows that the authors of Passage 2 view de- extinction as a “false promise” that may make the problem of shrinking biodiversity appear easier to solve than it actually will be. C hoice A is incorrect because the authors of Passage 2 are less enthusiastic about the “prospect” of de- extinction than the author of Passage 1, as they state that de- extinction “threatens to divert attention from the modern biodiversity crisis” (lines 32- 33). Choice B is incorrect because, while the authors of Passage 2 acknowledge that some extinctions may be inevitable, they are not resigned to de- extinction. Choice D is incorrect because the authors of Passage 2 do not suggest that people have little understanding of the biodiversity crisis. Page 27

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Reading Test Answer Explanations Question 47 Which choice would best support the claim that the authors of Passage 2 recognize that the “imagination soars” (line 24, Passage 1) in response to de -extinction technology? (A) Lines 28 -30 (“The . . . news”) (B) Lines 30-33 (“Yet . . . crisis”) (C) Lines 58-59 (“That . . . altogether”) (D) Lines 61 -63 (“For . . . diversity”) I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Synthesis / Analyzing multiple texts Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. In lines 22- 24, the author of Passage 1 writes: “That something as irreversible and final as extinction might be reversed is a stunning realization. The imagination soars.” This enthusiasm for such an exciting possibility is also recognized in Passage 2, which states in lines 28 -30 that “The idea of bringing back extinct species holds obvious gee -whiz appeal and a respite from a steady stream of grim news.” By conceding that there is “gee -whiz appeal” to de- extinction, the authors of Passage 2 recognize that it is an idea that makes the “imagination [soar].” C hoice B is incorrect because lines 30- 33 explain why de -extinction is a threat. Choice C is incorrect because lines 58- 59 concede only that the idea of de- extinction is not entirely without merit, a characterization which is far less enthusiastic than the statement “the imagination soars.” Cho ice D is incorrect because lines 61- 63 provide a single example of when de -extinction might be appropriate. Page 28

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 1 (A) NO CHANGE (B) see an annual loss of $63.2 billion each year (C) lose $63.2 billion annually (D) have a yearly loss of $63.2 billion annually I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Effective Language Use / Concision Best Answer: C Choice C is the best answer because it states the situation succinctly and is free of redundancies . C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because all three contain a redundancy in which a reference to the annual nature of the loss is stated twice; for example, Choice A states “yearly” and “annually.” Question 2 (A) NO CHANGE (B) main things leading up to (C) huge things about (D) primary causes of I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Effective Language Use / Style and tone Best Answer: D Choice D is the best answer because the use of language is correct for standard written English and matches the formal tone of the passage. C hoices A and C are incorrect because both rely on colloquial langua ge, specifically “big” and “huge,” which strays from the formal tone of the article. Additionally, “things” in Choice C is vague and informal. Choice B is incorrect for the same reason. Page 29

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 3 (A) NO CHANGE (B) have spent (C) spends (D) are spent I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Conventions of Usage / Agreement / Subject -verb agreement Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer because the verb “spends” grammatically corresponds with the singular noun “American.” C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because, in each instance, the noun and verb do not grammatically correspond. The verbs “spend,” “have spent” and “are spent” would correspond with a plural noun, but not with the singular noun “American.” Question 4 (A) NO CHANGE (B) worker s; managers (C) workers, managers, (D) workers, managers I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Conventions of Punctuation / Within- sentence punctuation Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it provides punctuation that creates a complete sentence with clauses whose relationship to one another is clear. C hoice A is incorrect because it results in a sentence fragment. Choice B is incorrect because the first clause is dependent, signaled by the conditional phrase “As long as,” so a semicolon cannot be used. Choice C is incorrect because the comma following “managers” inappropriately separates the noun from the verb “should champion.” Page 30

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 5 To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 3 should be placed (A) where it is now. (B) before sentence 1. (C) after sentence 1. (D) after sentence 4. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Organization / Logical sequence Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer. Sentence 3 logically follows the statement in sentence 1 where readers learn that part of the problem is the work itself. Sentence 3 then tells readers what about the work has caused the decrease in sleep: “The hours the average American spend[s] working have increased dramatically….” C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not order the information in the paragraph logically. Question 6 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence. “Even fifteen -minute power naps improve alertness, creativity, and concentration. ” Should the writer make this addition here? (A) Yes, because it demonstrates that the benefits of napping can be gained without sacrificing large amounts of work time. (B) Yes, because it explains the methodology of the studies mentioned in the previous sentence. (C) No, because a discussion of the type of nap workers take is not important to the writer’s main point in the paragraph. (D) No, because it contradicts the writer’s discussion of napping in the previous sentences. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Development / Focus Best Answer: A Page 31

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations C hoice A is the best answer because it adds relevant information in support of the claim that companies should allow their employees to take naps. C hoice B is incorrect because the prospective sentence does not explain methodology. Choice C is incorrect because the example in the sentence provides additional information in support of napping. Choice D is incorrect because there is no contradiction . Question 7 Which choice provides a supporting example that reinforces the main point of the sentence? (A) NO CHANGE (B) including a lower risk of cardiovascular problems such as heart attack and stroke. (C) which are essential in an era of rising health care costs. (D) in addition to making employees more efficient. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Development / Support Best answer: B C hoice B is the best answer because it offers a specific example of a long-term health benefit that could lead to “reduced health care costs.” C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because they offer no supporting examples of long- term health benefits that could reduce health care costs. Question 8 (A) NO CHANGE (B) gently wake (C) gently to wake (D) gentle waking of I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Sentence Structure / Sentence formation / Parallel structure Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer because the verb “wake” is consistent with the preceding verbs in the series, “block” and “play.” Furthermore, choice B provides a verb that creates a grammatically complete and standard sentence. Page 32

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because, in each instance, the verb is not consistent with the preceding verbs in the series, “block” and “play.” Question 9 (A) NO CHANGE (B) among (C) between (D) into I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Conventions of Usage / Conventional expression Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer because, in this context, the preposition “among” is the only idiomatic choice: napping can be promoted “among” people but not “throughout,” “between,” or “into” them. C hoices A, C, and D are incorrect because the prepositions “throughout,” “between,” and “into” are unidiomatic in this context. Question 10 (A) NO CHANGE (B) but it benefits (C) as also to (D) but also to I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Sentence Structure / Sentence formation / Subordination and coordination Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it completes a parallel construction in which two elements are compared. In this construction “but also to” is parallel to “not only to” and thus is the only choice that creates a grammatically complete and standard sentence. The “not only…but also” construction is also known as a correlative conjunction, meaning that these two phrases should always travel in pairs. C hoices A and C are incorrect because they fail to complete the comparison that the preposition “not only to” signals. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run- on and incomplete sentence. Page 33

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 11 The writer wants a concluding sentence that restates the main argument of the passage. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Clearly, employers should consider reducing employees’ hours when they are overworked. (C) Companies should consider employee schedules carefully when im plementing a napping policy. (D) More businesses should follow their lead and embrace napping on the job. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Organization / Introductions, conclusions, and transitions Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it logically concludes the essay, the main argument of which is that napping during the workday boosts employee productivity and morale and reduces costs associated with poor health and absences. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these choices restates the main argument of the passage. Question 12 (A) NO CHANGE (B) pollination: this is (C) pollination, (D) pollination; I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Conventions of Punctuation / Nonrestrictive and parenthetical elements Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer because it provides the appropriate punctuation for the nonrestrictive modifying clause “including honeybee pollination.” Because the clause is not essential to the sentence, it should be offset with commas (or other matching punctuation). Since a comma is used before the clause, a comma must be used after it as well. C hoices A and D are incorrect because the punctuation does not match the comma that sets off the nonr estrictive modifying clause “including honeybee pollination.” Page 34

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations C hoice B is incorrect because “this is” is unnecessarily wordy. Question 13 (A) NO CHANGE (B) highlights the potentially disastrous effects (C) highlight the potentially disastrous effects (D) highlight the potentially disastrous affects I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Conventions of Usage / Frequently confused words Best Answer: B Choice B is the best answer because the verb “highlights” grammatically corresponds with the singular noun “the importance of bees.” Additionally, “effects” is the correct noun to describe outcomes. Choices A and D are incorrect because “affects” is the incorrect word in this context. Choice C is incorrect because there is no subject -verb agreement between the singular noun “the importance of bees” and the verb “highlight.” Question 14 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Known as colony (C) It is known as colony (D) Colony I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Sentence Structure / Sentence formation / Modifier placement Best Answer: B Choice B is the best answer because it provides a dependent clause that adequately introduces the main subject, colony collapse disorder, which corresponds directly to the subject in the second clause: “this phenomenon.” Choice A is incorrect because “They” has no clear antecedent and creates a comma splice. Choice C is incorrect because it also results in a comma splice. Choice D is incorrect because it creates redundancy with the following noun phrase “this phenomenon.” Page 35

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 15 Which choice offers the most accurate interpretation of the data in the chart? (A) NO CHANGE (B) been above the acceptable range. (C) not changed noticeably from year to year. (D) greatly increased every year. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Development / Quantitative information Best Answer: B Choice B is the best answer because it accurately represents the information in the chart . Choice A is incorrect because in the 2011 -2012 winter season, bee mortality rates fell below 25% of the bee colony . Choice C is incorrect because, according to the chart, bee mortality rates have varied noticeably year to year. Choice D is incorrect for a similar reason. The chart shows that, year to year, bee mortality rates have both increased and decreased. Question 16 Which choice offers an accurate interpretation of the data in the chart? (A) NO CHANGE (B) portion of bees lost was double what it had been the previous year, rising to (C) number of losses, which had fallen within the acceptable range the previous year, rose to (D) portion of total colonies lost rose almost 10 percentage points, with a loss of I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Development / Quantitative information Best Answer: D Choice D is the best answer because it accurately represents the comparison in bee population loss between the 2010−2012 and 2012−2013 periods. Compared to the 2011−2012 winter season, bee loss was almost 10 percentage points higher the following year. Page 36

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations C hoice A is incorrect because it states that compared to the preceding years, bee losses fell in 2012−2013 when, according to the data, the opposite was true. Choice B is incorrect because the bee loss in 2012−2013 did not double from 2011−2012. Given that bee loss in 2011−2012 hovered around 22%, double would be around 44%, while the chart says bee loss in 2012−2013 was just over 30%. Choice C is incorrect because it makes a false statement: the number of losses had not “fallen within the acceptable range the previous year.” Question 17 Which choice most smoothly and effectively introduces the writer’s discussion of studies of CCD in this paragraph? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Bees are vanishing, and according to studies there 
are several possible reasons for this trend. (C) Several possible reasons, offered by studies, may 
explain why bees are vanishing. (D) DELETE the underlined sentence. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Effective Language Use / Syntax Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. It adequately introduces the paragraph’s main topic in a grammatically complete and standard manner. In addition, its use of the passive voice (“Studies have offered”) establishes a pattern that the next sentence maintains (“One reason that is often cited”). C hoices B and C are incorrect because each is redundant. In B, there is no need to refer to bees vanishing and “this trend” in the same sentence. In C, there is no need to specify that “reasons . . . may explain.” Choice D is incorrect because if the paragraph were to begin with the sentence “One reason that is often cited…,” the writer’s discussion of studies of CCD would not be introduced smoothly and effectively. Page 37

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 18 At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence. “Prolonged exposure to neonicotinoids has been shown to increase bees’ vulnerability to disease and parasitic mites.” Should the writer make this addition here? (A) Yes, because it provides support for the claim made in the previous sentence. (B) Yes, because it introduces a new idea that will become important later in the passage. (C) No, because it would be better placed elsewhere in the passage. (D) No, because it contradicts the main idea of the passage. I tem Diffic ulty: Medium Content: Development / Focus Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer because the information supports the preceding claim by showing how lingering neonicotinoids impact bees in particular. The previous sentence notes “one reason” why bees are vanishing (the use of neonicotinoids), and this proposed sentence usefully elaborates on how neonicotinoids harm bees. C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because the information doesn’t introduce a new idea that will become important later in the passage, belong elsewhere in the passage, or contradict the main idea. Question 19 (A) NO CHANGE (B) is a pretty big deal. (C) can’t be put on the back burner. (D) cannot be ignored. I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Effective Language Use / Style and tone Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because the diction is consistent with the article’s tone and style. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because the casual tone and style of the phrases “is not to be scoffed at,” “is a pretty big deal,” and “can’t be put on the back burner” deviate from the more formal tone and style established in the rest of the article. Page 38

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 20 (A) NO CHANGE (B) crops, this is an expensive proposition when there is a shortage of bees. (C) crops, an expensive proposition when there is a shortage of bees. (D) crops; an expensive proposition when there is a shortage of bees. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Sentence Structure / Sentence formation / Sentence boundaries Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer because it creates a grammatically correct relationship between an independent clause and a dependent one. C hoices A and D are incorrect because a semicolon should link two independent clauses in order to be grammatically correct; in each instance the second clause is dependent. Choice B is incorrect because it creates a comma splice. Question 21 (A) NO CHANGE (B) there (C) their (D) its I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Conventions of Usage / Possessive determiners Best Answ er: C C hoice C is the best answer because it provides the correct possessive form of a plural noun, the farmers who are the main subject of the sentence. C hoices A and B are incorrect because neither is the correct possessive form of “they.” Choice A is a contraction of the subject “they” and the verb “are,” while Choice B is an adverb that refers to a place or a particular point in time. Choice D is incorr ect because it is the possessive form of a singular, not a plural, noun. Page 39

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 22 The writer wants a conclusion that addresses the future of efforts to combat CCD. Which choice results in the passage having the most appropriate concluding senten ce? (A) NO CHANGE (B) Still, bee colonies have experienced such devastating losses that the consequences of the issue have been felt worldwide. (C) Although CCD is a relatively new phenomenon, scientists have been studying other aspects of honeybees for over a century. (D) Genetic variation in bee colonies generally improves bees’ productivity, disease resistance, and ability to regulate body temperature. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Organization / Introductions, conclusions, and transitions Bes t Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer because the passage already has an appropriate concluding sentence that addresses “the future of efforts to combat CCD.” This sentence supports the last paragraph’s focus on “commonsense measures” by outlining potential CCD -prevention efforts such as “[a] decrease in the use of certain pesticides, herbicides, and fungicides” and stating that these efforts “could begin a shift in a favorable direction.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they don’t address “the future of efforts to combat CCD” that the question demands. Choice B describes the current impact of diminishing bee populations instead of discussing the future. Choice C introduces a new topic that departs from the paragraph’s main topic. Choice D intr oduces a related topic that needs further elaboration. Question 23 (A) NO CHANGE (B) stood; (C) stood — (D) stood I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Conventions of Punctuation / Unnecessary punctuation Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it creates a grammatically complete and standard sentence. Page 40

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because each inserts unnecessary punctuation that disrupts the meaning of the sentence, which is to state where Giuseppe Ferrua stood. Question 24 (A) NO CHANGE (B) inside (C) for (D) on I tem Difficulty: Easy Content: Conventions of Usage / Conventional expression Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer because the preposition “with” correctly reflects the relationship between the subject, verb, and object: “landscape,” “dotted,” and “vineyards,” respectively. C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because each provides a preposition that does not appropriately represent the relationship between the subject, verb, and object. A landscape can be dotted “with” vineyards; it cannot be dotted “inside,” “for,” or “on” vineyards. Question 25 (A) NO CHANGE (B) however, (C) by contrast, (D) thereafter, I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Organization / Introductions, conclusions, and transitions Best Answer: A Choice A is the best answer because the information in the sentence elaborates on and supports the claim in the previous sentence: that lunar farming “is driven by the belief that the Moon influences levels of moisture in the soil.” C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not appropriately signal the information in the sentence, which elaborates on and supports the claim in the previous sentence. Rather, Choices B and C suggest that the writer is drawing a contrast, and Choice D introduces a time sequence that is not present in the paragraph. Page 41

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 26 (A) NO CHANGE (B) Given that (C) So (D) DELETE the underlined portion and begin the sentence with a capital letter. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Sentence Structure / Sentence formation / Subordination and coordination Best Answer: B C hoice B is the best answer because it creates a grammatically complete and standard sentence. It also correctly reflects the relationship specified in the passage between moisture and the lunar calendar. C hoice A is incorrect because “Although” suggests that the second clause will say something contrary to the first. Choices C and D are incorrect because each results in a grammatically incomplete sentence. Question 27 Which choice most effectively sets u p the paragraph? (A) NO CHANGE (B) People all over the world farm by the Moon. (C) Farming by the Moon is not new. (D) Talk of the Moon’s influence is far -reaching. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Development / Proposition Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer because it acts effectively as a transition between the previous paragraph and this one. C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because none of the three introduces the paragraph’s main topic, the long history of lunar farming. Page 42

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 28 Which choice provides the most specific information on the type of advice a lunar calendar offers? (A) NO CHANGE (B) actions relevant to farming. (C) points in time at which to undertake certain tasks. (D) optimal times to plant, weed, prune, and harvest. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Effective Language Use / Precision Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it provides “the most specific information on the type of advice a lunar calendar offers.” C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because each is vague; specifically, “farm chores,” “actions,” and “certain tasks” are all nebulous terms, and the question asks for the “most specific information.” Question 29 (A) NO CHANGE (B) almanacs’s (C) almanac’s (D) almanacs’ I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Conventions of Punctuation / Possessive nouns and pronouns Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer because it provides the grammatically correct option for a possessive singular noun. The editor belongs to, or is affiliated with, the almanac. C hoices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to provide a grammatically correct possessive noun. There is only one almanac, the “Old Farmer’s Almanac ,” to which the editor belongs. Page 43

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 30 (A) NO CHANGE (B) ske ptics, who have yet to be convinced. (C) skeptics —those who doubt the method. (D) skeptics. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Effective Language Use / Concision Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it introduces the paragraph’s topic succinctly without repeating information. By definition, skeptics are people who are unsure, have yet to be convinced, doubt the method, etc. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because all three include redundant information about skeptics. Question 31 (A) NO CHANGE (B) those (C) it’s (D) its I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Conventions of Usage / Possessive determiners Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it provides the possessive pronoun that grammatically corresponds to a singular noun, “agriculture.” C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because each fails to provide a grammatically correct or appropriate possessive pronoun. Choice A presents a possessive pronoun for a plural antecedent rather than a singular one. Choice B’s “those” is vague, leaving the reader unsure of the relationship between the practices and agriculture. Choice C presents a grammatically incorrect construction of the possessive pronoun for it. Page 44

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 32 The writer wants to conclude the paragraph effectively while also reinforcing the point that skepticism toward lunar farming still exists. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? (A) NO CHANGE (B) and therefore no sound scientific data on the subject exist to date. (C) yet many continue to practice lunar farming. (D) leading many to conclude that the practice is based in folklore, not fact. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Organization / Introductions, conclusions, and transitions Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it satisfies the directions of the question by “reinforcing the point that skepticism toward lunar farming still exists.” Only Choice D refers back to the skeptics mentioned at the beginning of the paragraph, acknowledging that “many...conclude that the practice” of lunar farmi ng is “based in folklore, not fact.” C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because, while each makes a logical connection with the preceding part of the sentence, none of the three refers back to the skeptics mentioned at the beginning of the paragraph. Question 33 Which choice gives an additional supporting example that emphasizes the importance of the senses in judging the success of the lunar farming method? (A) NO CHANGE (B) She has taken photographs of the grapevines and landscape. (C) She takes careful notes about Ferrua’s farming methods, asking Ferrua to clarify how he prepares the soil. (D) She dips bread into Ferrua’s olive oil as he explains a soil preparation he does in the fall. I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Development / Support Be st Answer: A Page 45

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations C hoice A is the best answer because it corresponds with the question’s instructions to choose “an additional supporting example that emphasizes the importance of the senses.” Professor Coffman’s statement about the fragrant rosemary logically follows the English farmer’s statement about his potatoes, as both use sensory impressions to attest to the success of lunar farming. C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because each fails to provide an additional supporting example that demonstrates that Professor Coffman “has a similar response” to that of the English farmer. Choices B and D both involve the senses, but neither uses sensory impressions to judge the success of lunar farming. Choice C doesn’t involve a sensory experience; it recounts an experience of information gathering. Question 34 The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion (ending the sentence with a period). Should the writer make this deletion? A)Yes, because the underlined portion detracts from the paragraph’s focus on the Szathmary collection. B)Yes, because the information in the underlined portion is provided in the previous sentence. C) No, because the underlined portion defines a ter m that is important to the passage. D)No, because the underlined portion gives an example of a particular culinary artifact. I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Development / Focus Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer because the term “manuscript recipe books” is unclear without the underlined portion to define it. C hoice A is incorrect because the underlined portion is consistent with the paragraph’s focus; it does not detract from it. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined information does not appear in the previous sentence. Choice D is incorrect because, while it asserts correctly that the underlined portion should not be deleted, it does not offer a persuasive reason for keeping the definition of “manuscript recipe books.” Page 46

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 35 A)NO CHANGE B)Regardless of C) In contrast to D) In addition to I tem Difficulty: Hard Content: Organization / Introductions, conclusions, and transitions Best Answer: A C hoice A is the best answer. “Because of” supports the cause- effect relationship between the two clauses in the sentence, which state that as result of the 20,000- item donation’s size and range, figuring out how to make the information available to the public was “a ch allenge.” C hoices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not support the cause- effect relationship between the two clauses. Question 36 A)NO CHANGE B)donation of so many culinary artifacts, C) massive donation of cookbooks, D) donation, It em Difficulty: Hard Content: Effective Language Use / Concision Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it does not contain information that has already been established in the preceding sentences of the passage. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because they repeat information already established in the preceding sentences of the passage. Page 47

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #1 Writing and Language Test Answer Explanations Question 37 A) NO CHANGE B) for C) and D) but I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Sentence Structure / Sentence formation / Subordination and coordination Best Answer: D C hoice D is the best answer because it provides a conjunction, “but,” that accurately reflects the relationship between the two clauses. This relationship contrasts the librarians’ desire to share all the objects in the collection with the problem of presenting the delicate manuscripts. C hoices A, B, and C are incorrect because each provides a conjunction that does not reflect the relationship between the two clauses. Question 38 A)NO CHANGE B)his or her C) their D) one’ s I tem Difficulty: Medium Content: Conventions of Usage / Agreement / Pronoun- antecedent agreement Best Answer: C C hoice C is the best answer because the possessive pronoun “their” grammatically corresponds to the plural “volunteers.” C hoice A is incorrect because it provides a possessive pronoun that would correspond with “we,” which would only be valid if the writer were part of the group of volunteers. Choices B and D are incorrect because each provides a possessive pronoun for a singular noun, yet the subject of the clause is the plural noun “volunteers.” Page 48

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