[PDF] Assessment for Course Placement with Accuplacer ASSET COMPASS CELSA - Maricopa Community Colleges.pdf | Plain Text

Maricopa Community Colleges Student Information Guide Assessment for Course Placement with Accuplacer, ASSET, COMPASS, CELSA

The Maricopa Community College District does not discriminate on the basis of race, color, religion, national orig in, sex, sexual orientation, handicap/disability, age or Vietnam era/disabled veteran status in employment or in the application, admission, participation, access and treatment of persons in instructional programs and activities. The Student Informatio n Guide for ASSET/COMPASS Placement Testing has been adapted for the Maricopa Community College District from information obtained at Columbus State Community College, American College Testing, Inc. , College Board, and the Association of Classroom Teacher Testers. Sample test questions and additional information can also be found at: http://www.act.org/asset/pdf/guide.pdf http://www.act.org/c ompass/sample/index.html http://www.collegeboard.com/student/testing/accuplacer/preparation- sample.html

i A MESSAGE TO STUDENTS This booklet, provided free of charge, is intended to help you do your best on the placement test. It describes the Accuplacer, ASSET, COMPASS and CELSA testing policies, summarizes general test -taking strategies and helps you prepare for the test day. Included are practice Accuplacer, ASSET, COMPASS and CELSA tests. Read this booklet carefully and take the practice test well before the test day so you will be familiar with which test(s) you will be taking, what it measures and the strategies you can use to do your best. Calculators ar e optional for the advanced mathematics assessments An on- screen calculator is provided for the Accuplacer math tests. No other calculators may be used. ASSET Elementary, Intermediate and College algebra students may use a four -function scientific or graph ing calculator except as noted below . No calculators are permitted on the Numerical Skills test. Clicking on the “Calculator” button from the COMPASS mathematics test screen will bring up the default Windows calculator. You may also use a four - function sc ientific or graphing calculator except as noted below . Calculators are not required and all mathematics problems can be solved without a calculator. If you regularly use a calculator you may want to bring it to the test. Calculators must be on the ACT app roved list and the test center will not be responsible for any malfunctions. Types of calculators not approved Pocket organizers Handheld or laptop computers Electronic writing pads or pen input devices Models with any QWERTY keypads Models with any built -in capability to simplify algebraic expressions : • Casio CFX-997OG • Casio Algebra fx2 • Casio Classpad • Hewlett Packard HP-40G • Hewlett Packard HP-48GII • Hewlett Packard HP-49G • Texas Instruments TI -89 • Texas Instruments TI -92 PLEASE NOTE: If English is your second language, the CELSA test will be administered or a referral to an ESL advisor/instructor will be made to determine your level of English competency. ESL students may be exempt from the ASSET or COMPASS tests until passing an appropriate ESL tes t or completion of the appropriate ESL course(s).

ii _______ TABLE OF CONTENTS ______ DIS CRIMINATION POLICY...…………………inside front cover A MESSAGE TO STUDENTS ....................................................... i TESTING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ....................... 1 GENERAL TEST- TAKING STRATEGIES .................................. 2 PREPARING FOR THE TEST DAY ............................................ 4 ACCUPLACER SENTENCE SKILLS .......................................... 5 ACCUPLACER READING COMPREHENSION ........................ 9 ACCUPLACER ARITHMETIC .................................................. 13 ACCUPLACER ELEMENTARY ALGEBRA ............................ 15 ASSET WRITING SKILLS ......................................................... 18 ASSET READING SKILLS ......................................................... 21 ASSET NUMERICAL SKILLS ................................................... 25 ASSET ELEMENTARY ALGEBRA .......................................... 26 ASSET INTERMEDIATE ALGEBRA ........................................ 27 ASSET COLLEGE ALGEBRA ................................................... 28 COMPASS WRITING SKILLS ................................................... 29 COMPASS READING SKILLS .................................................. 32 COMPASS MATHEMATICS PLACEMENT MEASURES ...... 35 COMPASS N UMERICAL SKILLS/PREALGEBRA ................. 36 COMPASS ALGEBRA PLACEMENT ....................................... 38 COMPASS COLLEGE ALGEBRA PLACEMENT .................... 41 ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE (ESL) CELSA PLACEMENT TESTING ............................................................. 42 ANSWER KEYS .......................................................................... 45 M CCCD ASSESSMENT CENTERS.…………...inside back cover M CCCD PLACEMENT SCORES ………… .…outside back cover

- 1 - TESTING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS What are the placement tests? Accuplacer, ASSET, and COMPASS are placement tests designed to identify your skill levels in English language usage, reading, and mathematics. ASSET is a timed paper and pencil test while Accuplacer and COMPASS are untimed computer based tests. CELSA is a 45 minute multiple choice test designed to measure context and grammatical understanding of the English language for students spea king English as a second language. Scores are used by you and an advisor or counselor to help you decide which courses to take. All students taking their first college level English, reading, or mathematics course must complete placement testing before the y can register. Why is testing required? We want you to be as successful as possible. Research shows that placement testing helps you to enter English, reading, or mathematics courses at the proper starting point. The result is that you will have a bett er chance of completing your courses and earning good grades. Can I fail the placement tests? No! Whatever scores you earn, an English, reading or mathematics course will be available to you. Can I retest? Yes! Test scores are good for two years for co urse placement at any MCCD college. You are permitted one retest per discipline per year after a 24 -hour waiting period.

2 GENERAL TEST-TAKING STRATEGIES Accuplacer, ASSET, and COMPASS consist of tests in the areas of English, reading and mathematics. Each of these tests contains multiple -choice questions that offer answer choices from which you are to choose the “correct”, or “best” answer. CELSA questions have four choices per question and ask for the “correct” answer per question. The following suggestio ns may apply to Accuplacer only, ASSET only, COMPASS only, CELSA only or all the tests: Pace yourself The time limit set for each ASSET and CELSA test gives nearly everyone enough time to finish all the questions. It is important to pace yourself so you will not spend too much time on one question. Read the directions for each test carefully Before you begin taking one of the tests, read the directions carefully. Some of the directions will ask for the “best” or “correct” answer. Do not respond as soo n as you identify a correct answer. Read and consider all of the answer choices and choose the answer that is appropriate for the question. The mathematics tests ask for the “correct” answer. Read each question carefully to make sure you understand the ty pe of answer required. Then you may want to compute the answer and look for it among the choices given. If your answer is not among the choices provided, recompute the answer before you choose “not given” if that is one of your choices. Read each question carefully It is important that you understand what each question is asking. Some questions will require you to go through several steps to find a correct answer, while others can be answered quickly on the basis of your acquired knowledge. Answer the ea sy questions first The best strategy for taking the timed tests are to answer the easy questions and skip the questions you find more difficult. After answering all of the easy questions, go back and answer the more difficult questions. Once you have sele cted “go on” in COMPASS you cannot return to the questions in the previous selection. Please do not press “go on” until you have answered all the questions in a passage.

3 Use logic with more difficult questions When you return to the more difficult questi ons, try to use logic to eliminate incorrect answers to a question. Compare the choices to each other and note how they differ. Such differences may provide clues to what the question requires. Eliminate as many incorrect answers as you can, then make an educated guess from the remaining choices. Review your work If time permits in ASSET or CEL SA, go back and review your work. Check to be sure that you have marked only one answer for each question. Accuplacer and COMPASS are not timed but review your answ ers before you select “go on”. You cannot return to a previous passage after selecting “go on”. Answer every question Your score is based on the number of questions you answer correctly; there is no penalty for guessing. Be precise in marking your ans wers Be sure you blacken the correct response on your ASSET or CELSA test answer sheet. Check to be sure the response you are blackening is the same as the number of the question you are answering. If you must change an answer please erase the mark carefu lly and completely. For COMPASS or Accuplacer click on each numbered box and answer the corresponding question. If you must change your answer just click on your second choice and the first will disappear. For COMPASS, w hen all numbered boxes have been a nswered select the “go on” button. Once “go on” is selected you cannot go back to change an answer.

4 PREPARING FOR THE TEST DAY Although what you know will determine how well you do on the placement test, your attitudes, emotions and physical state may also influence your performance. The following will help you to do your best: • Complete and submit an application for admission (Student Information Form) • Bring picture ID to the testing session. • If you do not have a high school diploma or GED an d are planning on applying for financial aid, you must take the Writing, Reading and Basic Math assessments on the same form and in the same testing session. • Be confident in your ability to do well. YOU CAN!!!! • Be prepared to work hard. • Know what to exp ect on the test day. Familiarize yourself with the information in this booklet. Review the practice tests so you will feel comfortable with the test you are taking. • Prepare well in advance for the test. • Get plenty of rest the night before and do not tes t on an empty stomach. Be in good physical condition. • Arrive in plenty of time to complete all necessary paper work before testing and have enough time to complete testing before the center closes. • Take some deep breaths, RELAX!

5 ACCUPLACER SENTENCE SKILLS In an ACCUPLACER placement test, there are 20 Sentence Skills questions of two types. • The first type is sentence correction questions that require an understanding of sentence structure. These questions ask you to choose the most appropriate w ord or phrase to substitute for the underlined portion of the sentence. • The second type is construction shift questions. These questions ask that a sentence be rewritten according to the criteria shown while maintaining essentially the same meaning as the original sentence. Within these two primary categories, the questions are also classified according to the skills being tested. Some questions deal with the logic of the sentence, others with whether or not the answer is a complete sentence, and still oth ers with the relationship between coordination and subordination. SENTENCE SKILLS SAMPLE QUESTIONS Directions for questions 1 -6 Select the best version of the underlined part of the sentence. The first choice is the same as the original sentence. If you t hink the original sentence is best, choose the first sentence. 1. The baby was obviously getting too hot, then Sam did what he could to cool her. A. hot, then Sam did B. hot, Sam C. hot; Sam, therefore, did D. hot; Sam, trying to do 2. She hoped to find a new job. One tha t would let her earn money during the school year. A. job. One that B. job. The kind that C. job, one that D. job, so that it 3. Knocked sideways, the statue looked as if it would fall. A. Knocked sideways, the statue looked B. The statue was knocked sideways, looked C. The stat ue looked knocked sideways D. The statue, looking knocked sideways,

6 4. To walk, biking, and driving are Pat’s favorite ways of getting around. A. To walk, biking, and driving B. Walking, biking, and driving C. To walk, biking, and to drive D. To walk, to bike, and also dri ving 5. When you cross the street in the middle of the block, this is an example of jaywalking. A. When you cross the street in the middle of the block, this B. You cross the street in the middle of the block, this C. Crossing the street in the middle of the block D. Th e fact that you cross the street in the middle of the block 6. Walking by the corner the other day, a child, I noticed, was watching for the light to change. A. a child, I noticed, was watching B. I noticed a child watching C. a child was watching, I noticed D. there was, I noticed, a child watching Directions for questions 7 -12 Rewrite the sentence in your head following the directions given below. Keep in mind that your new sentence should be well written and should have essentially the same meaning as the sentence gi ven you. 7. In his songs, Gordon Lightfoot makes melody and lyrics intricately intertwine. Rewrite, beginning with Melody and lyrics… Your new sentence will include A. Gordon Lightfoot has B. make Gordon Lightfoot’s C. in Gordon Lightfoot’s D. does Gordon Lightfoot

7 8. It is easy to carry solid objects without spilling them, but the same cannot be said of liquids. Rewrite, beginning with Unlike liquids, The next words will be A. it is easy to B. we can easily C. solid objects can easily be D. solid objects are easy to be 9. Exc ited children ran toward the loud music, and they told others about the ice cream truck outside. Rewrite, beginning with The excited children, who had run toward the loud… The next words will be A. music, they told B. music told C. music, telling D. music and had told 10. If he had enough strength, Todd would move the boulder. Rewrite, beginning with Todd cannot move the boulder… The next words will be A. when lacking B. because he C. although there D. without enough

8 11. The band began to play, and then the real party started. Rewrite, beginning with The real party started… The next words will be A. after the band began B. and the band began C. although the band began D. the band beginning 12. Chris, heard no unusual noises when he listened in the park. Rewrite, beginning with Listening in the park… The next words will be A. no unusual noises could be heard B. then Chris heard no unusual noises C. and hearing no unusual noises D. Chris heard no unusual noises

9 ACCUPLACER READING COMPREHENSION In an ACUUPLACER placement test, there are 20 questions of two primary types in the Reading Comprehension. • The first type consists of a reading passage followed by a questions based on the text. The reading passages can also be classified according to the kind of information processing required including ex plicit statements related to the main idea, explicit statements related to a secondary idea, application, and inference. • The second type of question, sentence relationships, presents two sentences followed by a question abo ut the relationship between these two sentences. The question may ask, for example, if the statement in the second sentence supports that in the first, if it contradicts it, or if it repeats the same information. Directions for Questions 1 -6 Read the statement or passage and then choose the best answer to the question. Answer the question based on what is stated or implied in the statement or passage. 1. In the words of Thomas De Quincey, “It is notorious that the memory strengthens as you lay burdens upon it.” If, like most people, you hav e trouble recalling the names of those you have just met, try this: The next time you are introduced, plan to remember the names. Say to yourself, “I’ll listen carefully; I’ll repeat each person’s name to be sure I’ve got it, and I will remember.” You’ll d iscover how effective this technique is and probably recall those names for the rest of your life. The main idea of the paragraph maintains that the memory A. always operates at peak efficiency B. breaks down under great strain C. improves if it is used often D. becomes unreliable if it tires 2. Unemployment was the overriding fact of life when Franklin D. Roosevelt became president of the United States on March 4, 1933. An anomaly of the time was that the government did not systematically collect statistics of jobless ness; actually it did not start doing so until 1940. The Bureau of Labor Statistics later estimated that 12,830,000 persons were out of work in 1933, about one -fourth of a civilian labor force of more than 51 million. Roosevelt signed the Federal Emergenc y Relief Act on May 12, 1933. The president selected Harry L. Hopkins, who headed the New York relief

10 program, to run FERA. A gifted administrator, Hopkins quickly put the program into high gear. He gathered a small staff in Washington and brought the state relief agencies into the FERA system. While the agency tried to provide all necessities, food came first. City dwellers usually got an allowance for fuel, and rent for one month was provided in case of eviction. This passage is primarily about A. unemployment in the 1930s. B. the effect of unemployment on United States families C. President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s presidency D. President Roosevelt’s FERA program 3. It is said that a smile is universally understood. And nothing triggers a smile more universally than a taste of sugar. Nearly everyone loves sugar. Infant studies indicate that humans are born with an innate love of sweets. Based on statistics, a lot of people in Great Britain must be smiling because on average, every man, woman, and child in that country consumes 95 pounds of sugar each year. From this passage it seems safe to conclude that the English A. do not know that too much sugar is unhealthy B. eat desserts at every meal C. are fonder of sweets than most people D. have more cavities than any other people 4. Wi th varying success, many women around the world today struggle for equal rights. Historically, women have achieved greater equality with men during periods of social adversity. Three of the following factors initiated the greatest number of improvements fo r women: violent revolution, world war, and the rigors of pioneering in an undeveloped land. In all three cases, the essential element that improved the status of women was a shortage of men, which required women to perform many of society’s vital tasks. We can conclude from the information in this passage that A. women today are highly successful in winning equal rights. B. only pioneer women have been considered equal to men. C. historically, women have only achieved equality through force D. historically, the principle of equality alone has not been enough to secure women equal rights

11 5. In 1848, Charles Burton of New York City made the first baby carriage, but people strongly objected to the vehicles because they said the carriage operators hit too many pedestrians . Still convinced he had a good idea, Burton opened a factory in England. He obtained orders for the baby carriages form Queen Isabella II of Spain, Queen Victoria of England, and the Pasha of Egypt. The United States had to wait another 10 years before it got a carriage factory, and only 75 carriages were sold in the first year. Even after the success of baby carriages in England, A. Charles Burton was a poor man. B. Americans were still reluctant to buy baby carriages. C. Americans purchased thousands of baby ca rriages. D. the United States bought more baby carriages than any other country. 6. All water molecules form six -sided structures as they freeze and become snow crystals. The shape of the crystal is determined by temperature, vapor, and wind conditions in the u pper atmosphere. Snow crystals are always symmetrical because these conditions affect all six sides simultaneously. The purpose of the passage is to present A. a personal observation B. a solution to the problem C. actual information D. opposing scientific theories Directions for questions 7 -10 For the questions that follow, two underlined sentences are followed by a question or statement. Read the sentences, then choose the best answer to the question or the best completion of the statement . 7. The Midwest is experiencing its worst drought in 15 years. Corn and soybean prices are expected to be very high this year. What does the second sentence do? A. It restates the idea found in the first. B. It states an effect. C. It gives an example. D. It analyzes the statement made in t he first.

12 8. Social studies classes focus on the comple xity of our social environment. The subject combines the study of history and the social sciences and promotes skills in citizenship. What does the second sentence do? A. It gives an example. B. It makes a contrast. C. It proposes a solution. D. It analyzes the statement made in the first. 9. Knowledge of another language fosters greater awareness of cultural diversity among the peoples of the world. Individuals who have foreign language skills can appreciate more readily other peoples’ values and ways of life. How are the sentences related? A. They contradict each other. B. They present problems and solutions. C. They establish a contrast. D. They repeat the same idea. 10. Serving on a jury is an important obligation of citize nship. Many companies allow their employees paid leaves of absence to serve on juries. What does the second sentence do? A. It reinforces what is stated in the first. B. It explains what is stated in the first. C. The second expands on the first. D. It draws a conclusion about what is stated in the first.

13 ACCUPLACER ARITHMETIC This test measures your ability to perform basic arithmetic operations and to solve problems that involve fundamental arithmetic concepts. There are 17 questions on the Arithmetic tests divided into three types. • Operations with whole numbers and fractions: topics included in this category are addition, subtractions, multiplication, division, recognizing equivalent fractions and mixed numbers, and estimating. • Operations with decimals and percents: topics include addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division with decimals, fraction and percent equivalencies, and problems involving estimation are also given. • Applications and problem solving: topics include rate, percent, and measurement pr oblems, simple geometry problems, and distribution of a quantity into its fractional parts. Arithmetic Sample Questions Solve the following problems and select your answer from the alternatives given. You may use the paper you have been given for scratch paper. 1. 2.75 + .003 + .158 = A. 4.36 B. 2.911 C. 0.436 D. 2.938 2. 7.86 x 4.6 = A. 36.156 B. 36.216 C. 351.56 D. 361.56 3. 7 20= A. 0.035 B. 0.858 C. 0.35 D. 3.5 4. Which of the following is the least? A. 0.105 B. 0.501 C. 0.015 D. 0.15

14 5. All of the following are ways to write 25 percent of N EXCEPT A. 0.25 N B. 25 100 N C. 1 4N D. 25 N 6. Which of the following is closest to 27.8 X 9.6? A. 280 B. 300 C. 2,800 D. 3,000 7. A soccer team played 160 games and won 65 percent of them. How many games did it win? A. 94 B. 104 C. 114 D. 124 8. Th ree people who work full -time are to work together on a project, but their total time on the project is to be equivalent to that of only one person working full -time. If one of the people is budgeted for one -half of his time to the project and a second per son for one-third of her time, what part of the third worker’s time should be budgeted to this project? A. 1 3 B. 3 5 C. 1 6 D. 1 8 9. 32 is 40 percent of what number? A. 12.8 B. 128 C. 80 D. 800 10. 3 1/3 – 2 2/5 = A. 1 1 2 B. 1 15 C. 14 15 D. 1 1 15

15 ACCUPLACER ELEMENTARY ALGEBRA A total of 12 questions of three types are administered in this test. • The first type i nvolves operations with integers and rational numbers, and includes computation with integers and negative rationals, the use of absolute values, and ordering. • A second type involves operations with algebraic expressions using evaluation of simple formulas and expressions, and adding and subtracting monomials and polynomials. Questions involve multiplying and dividing monomials and polynomials, the evaluation of positive rational roots and exponents, simplifying algebraic fractions, and factoring. • The third type of question involves the solution of equations, inequalities, word problems, solving linear equations and inequalities, the solution of quadratic equations by factoring, solving verbal problems presented in an algebraic context, including geometric r easoning and graphing, and the translation of written phrases into algebraic expressions. Elementary Algebra Sample Questions Solve the following problems and choose your answer from the alternatives given. You may use the paper you have been given for sc ratch paper. 1. If A represents the number of apples purchased at 15 cents each and B represents the number of bananas purchased at 10 cents each, which of the following represents the total value of the purchases? A. A + B B. 25 (A+ B) C. 10A + 15B D. 15A + 10B

16 2. 2 15 × = ? A. 17 B. 30 C. 30 D. 17 3. What is the value of the expression 22 234x xy y +− when x = 2 and y = - 4? A. -80 B. 80 C. -32 D. 32 4. In the figure below, both circles have the same center, and the radius of the larger circle is R. If the radius of the smaller circle is 3 units less than R, which of the following equations represents the area of the shaded region? A. 2Rπ B. ( ) 2 3 R π − C. 22 3 R ππ −× D. ( ) 2 2 3 Rr ππ −− 5. 2 (3 2 ) xy−= A. 22 94xy − B. 22 94xy + C. 22 946x y xy +− D. 22 9 4 12x y xy +−

17 6. 22 6 4 xx x−− −= A. 3 2 x − B. 3 2 x x − − C. 3 2 x x − + D. 3 2 7. 4 ( 6) 5 −− = − A. 2 5 B. 2 5 − C. 2 D. -2 8. If 2x – 3( x + 4) = - 5, then x = A. 7 B. -7 C. 17 D. -17 9. -3(5 -6) – 4(2 -3) = A. -7 B. 7 C. -1 D. 1 10. If 4 5 20 16 x −≥ , then A. 5 x ≤ B. 5 x ≥ C. 1 2 32 x ≥ D. 1 2 32 x ≤

18 ASSET WRITING SKILLS Directions: In the passage that follows, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right -ha nd column, you will find alternatives for each underlined part. You are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose “NO CHANGE.” You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. For each question in the test, choose the alternative you consider best and blacken the co rresponding space on your answer sheet. Read each passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. You cannot determine some answers without reading several sentences beyond the phrase in question. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative. The following paragraphs may or may not be in the most logical order. Each paragraph is numbered in parentheses, and item 11 will ask you to choose the sequence of paragraphs that is the most logical order. [1] In the end, everyone gives up jogging. Some 1. A. NO CHANGE B. drain find that their strenuous efforts to earn a living C. has drained D. is draining drains away the energy necessary for running. 1 2. A. NO CHANGE Others suffering from defeat by the hazards of B. suffered 2 C. suffer the course, which can range from hard pavement D. suffering with to muddy tracks and from fog to sleet and snow. 3. A. NO CHANGE B. Still others Person’s can also simply collapse in their sneakers. C. One may also 3 D. It’s also My experience having been different , however, I possible to 4 had a revelation. 4. A. NO CHANGE B. being different, C. was a difference, D. was different,

19 [2] It happened two summers ago up at Lake Tom, 5. A. NO CHANGE B. ate wonderfully: where I was vacationing with friends. I had been C. eating wonderful: D. eat wonderful: accustomed to running fairly regularly, but that wh ole week I decided to be lazy. I sailed, basked in the sun, and ate wonderful: lobster, steak, 5 corn on the cob, baked potatoes, and ice cream. By 6. A. NO CHANGE B. truth about the fourth day of this routine I had to face the truth C. truth: 6 D. truth, which which my body was slowly changing to dough. [3] So, filled with worthy ambition, I tied on my 7. A. NO CHANGE B. Ou t of curiosity, favorite pair of running shoes and loped out to the Lookout Hill Road was turned into main road in search of a five -mile route. Out of C. Having become curious, Lookout curiosity, I turned onto Lookout Hill Road Hill Road was the 7 road I turned onto and soon discovered how the road had come by its D.Lookout Hill Road, having become name. I was chugging, at a painfully slow rate, up one curious was the of the longest, steepest i nclines in the region. Perched 8. A.NO CHANGE 8 B. longest, steepest, at the faraway top of the hill was a solitary house, and C. steepest, longest D. longest and only a desire to get a closer look at the place kept me steepest going.

20 [4] I was exhausted when, gasping and bedraggled, 9. A. NO CHANGE B. house (painted). I reached the crest of the hill. There I found a native C. house, and it was painted. New Englander rocking tranquilly on the front D. house. porch of the house, which was painted . “Mister,” I 9 panted, you sure live on a big hill!!” [5] He studied me closely for a moment and then 10. A. NO CHANGE B. laces, of my responded, “Yep, and I’ve got the good sense not to running C. laces of my run up it. “That night I tied the laces of my running running, 10 D. laces; of my shoes around a rock and pitched them into Lake running Tom. Items 11 and 12 pose questions about the essay as a whole. 11. Choose the sequence of paragraph numbers that will make the essay’s structure most logical. A. NO CHANGE B. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3 C. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2 D. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 12. Is the use of direct quotatio n in the essay appropriate? A. No, because the essay is an explanation of why the writer gave up jogging. B. No, because more physical detail would be better in a descriptive essay. C. Yes, because the story is enlivened by dialogue. D. Yes, because the essay persuades readers to talk about running.

21 ASSET READING SKILLS Directions: The passage below is followed by 8 questions. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet. You may look back at the passage as often as you wish. The Industrial Revolution got under way first in England. This is a historical fact of the utmost significance, for it explains in large part England’s primary role in world affairs in the nineteenth century. Conse quently, the question of why the Industrial Revolution began where it did is of much more than academic interest. The problem may be simplified by eliminating those countries that could not, for one reason or another, have generated the Industrial Revoluti on. Italy at one time had been an economic leader, but had dropped behind with the Discoveries and the shift of the main trade routes from the Mediterranean to the Atlantic. Spain had been economically predominant in the sixteenth century but had then lost out to the northwestern stated for various reasons already noted. Holland had enjoyed her Golden Age in the seventeenth century, but she lacked the raw materials, labor resources, and water power necessary for machine production. The various countries of Central and Eastern Europe had been little affected by the Commercial Revolution and hence did not develop the technical skills, the trade markets and the capital reserves needed for industrialization. This leaves only France and Britain as possible leader s, and of the two England had certain advantages that enabled her to forge far ahead of her rival. In commerce, for example, the two countries were about equal in 1763, or, if anything, France was somewhat in the lead. But France had a population three tim es that of England.

22 France also lost ground in foreign trade when she was driven out of Canada and India in 1763. Furthermore, the blockade of the British fleet during the Revolutionary and Napoleonic Wars reduced French commerce to about half its 1788 value, and the loss was not restore until 1825. Another important advantage enjoyed by Britain is that she had taken an early lead in the basic coal and iron industries. Because the forest reserves were being depleted, Britain early began using coal for fue l and for smelting iron. By the time of the French Revolution in 1789, Britain was producing about 10 million tons of coal per year, while France was producing 700,000 tons. A contemporary poet sensed the significance of this unlimited source of power for English industry when he wrote England’s a perfect World! has Indies too! Correct your Maps! New -castle is Peru. England also pioneered in the development of the blast furnace which, in contrast to the old forges, could mass -produce irons. In 1780 Britain’s iron output had been a third that of France; by 1840, it was three times more. All this meant that Britain was pushing ahead in the production of goods of mass consumption for which there was a large and steady demand, whereas France speciali zed more in luxury commodities of limited and fluctuating demand. Perhaps Voltaire had this in mind when he wrote in 1735, “In truth we are the whipped cream of Europe.” From L. S. Stavrianos, The World Since 1500: A Global History

23 1. The word forge, a s it is used in the third paragraph, means: A. make use of the blast furnace. B. Alter in order to deceive. C. move forward steadily. D. produce wrought iron. 2. In comparing the economic development of England and France, the passage shows that: A. England and France were essentially equals until the middle of the nineteenth century. B. France modeled itself on the examples of Italy and Spain, while England modeled itself on the example of Holland. C. England gained most of its capital reserves from the spoils of war, while Fran ce gained its capital reserves from trade. D. England began on an equal base with France in the middle of the eighteenth century, but pulled far ahead by the middle of the nineteenth century. 3. What reason does the author give for discussing several countries besides England and France? A. Enriching the information provided in the passage B. Balancing the passage in the interest of fairness C. Simplifying the problem confronted in the passage D. Eliminating countries whose Golden Age was yet to come 4. The passage suggests t hat generating the first Industrial Revolution required which of the following? I. Raw materials II. Technical skills III. A large population A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

24 5. The author asserts that England’s primary role in world affairs in the ninetee nth century can be explained in large part by: A. the Industrial Revolution getting underway in England first. B. England’s overwhelming naval power. C. the decline of Italy, Spain, Holland, and Central and Eastern Europe. D. England’s unlimited source of power to fue l its industry. 6. The passage suggests that one indication of a country’s success in industrializing was: A. an educational system that could produce a steady supply of skilled workers. B. an ability to satisfy a large market for necessary, rather than luxury, goods. C. a forest reserve that could be rapidly and efficiently replenished. D. a fluctuating demand for luxury, rather than necessary, goods. 7. According to the passage, France was compared to whipped cream by: A. an unnamed contemporary poet. B. Voltaire. C. Napoleon. D. L. S. Stavrianos 8. The main idea of the passage is that: A. certain conditions gave England an advantage over other countries in industrializing. B. with its conquest of Canada in 1763, England controlled the raw materials necessary for industrialization. C. the Englis h preferred quantity in their goods, while the French demanded quality. D. England’s primary position in international affairs gave it the wealth and influence necessary for industrialization.

25 ASSET NUMERICAL SKILLS Directions : Solve each problem, choose t he correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding space on your answer sheet. For some questions, the fifth choice for an answer will be "Not given." Whenever none of the first 4 possible answers is correct, choose "Not Given" as your answer. Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as your can; then return to the others in the time you have left. 1. 0.05 + 0.30 = ? A. 0.08 B. 0.305 C. 0.35 D. 0.38 E. Not given 2. 0.35 ÷5= ? A. 0.07 B. 0.70 C. 1.75 D. 7.00 E. Not given 3. On a road map with a scale of 1 4 inch per 10 miles, the highway from Waukee to Winterset is 1 3 8 inches long. How many miles long is this highway? A. 44 B. 55 C. 65 D. 70 E. 90 4. The price of gasoline has increased by 5% during the past month. If the price per gallon a month ago was $1.20, what is the current price per gallon? A. $1.24 B. $1.25 C. $1.26 D. $1.70 E. $1.80 5. − 23 − 4−5 =? A. –12 B. –8 C. 8 D. 12 E. 24 6. Which of the following fractions is equivalent to 0.05? A. 1 5 B. 1 20 C. 1 25 D. 1 50 E. 1 200

26 ASSET ELEMENTARY ALGEBRA Directions : Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding space on your answer sheet Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as your can; then return to the others in the time you have left. 1. If 5 ×10 n= 0.005 , then n =? A. –5 B. –3 C. –2 D. 2 E. 3 2. If x = - 3, then x 2− 2x +1= ? A. 16 B. 4 C. 1 D. –11 E. –14 3. Which of the following gives 6a 2b3− 3a 2b in factored form? A. 3 a 2b(2b 2) B. 3 a 2(2b 2−1) C. 3 ab(2 ab 2−1) D. 3 a 2b(2b 2− 1) E. a 2b (6b 2− 1) 4. For all x ≠0 and y ≠0 (3 x −2y3)2 xy = ? A. 9 x 3y8 B. 9 y 4 x C. 9 y 4 x2 D. 9 y 5 x5 E. 9 y 7 x5

27 ASSET INTERMEDIATE ALGEBRA Directions: Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding space on your answer sheet Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as your can; then return to the others in the time you have left. 1. One solution to the equation x 2+ 10x +16 =0 is: A. 2 B. 8 C. 12 D. –4 E. –2 2. Find the x -intercept for each of the following lines. Which has an x - intercept of - 2? A. 4x -2y = 4 B. 2x -4y = 4 C. 3x +7 y = - 6 D. 7x -4y = 21 E. 5x +2 y = - 15 3. Which of the following points is a solution to the given system of linear equations? 3x -2y = -7 2x-5y = -12 A. (-1,2) B. (-2,1) C. (-2,- 2) D. (2,1) E. No Solution 4. If y ≠0 , find the value of x: (x−1) 5y3 y3 = 0 A. y B. y 1 C. 0 D. 1 E. x-1 5. If a ≠ 0 and b ≠0 simplify: ab −1 a − 1 b A. a B. a- b C. ab D. 1- ab E. b

28 ASSET COLLEGE ALGEBRA Directions: Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corresponding space on your answer sheet Do not linger over problems that take too much time. Solve as many as your can; then return to the others in the time you have left. 1. If f (x ) = x 2+kx +12 and f (− 1) = 6 , then k=? A. 3 B. 4 C. 7 D. –5 E. –6 2. Which of the following is the solution to the system of equations: 2 x + 1 y = −2 5 x − 3 y = −16 A. (2, -2) B. (-2, 2) C. ( 1 2 , − 1 2 ) D. (− 1 2 ,1 2 ) E. (-1,0) 3. Which of the following equations determines the graph shown? A. − 2x 2+ 4x = y B. 2 x 2− 4x= y C. x 2+ 4x +4= y D. x 2− 4x + 2= y E. 4 x 2+ 2x +2= y 4. Which of the following equal(s) log 25? I. log 5 + log 5 II. log 20 + log 5 III. 2 log 5 A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and I I only E. I and III only 5. A store owner earns $2000.00 a week on the sale of one type of shirt. If he reduces the price by $4.00 per shirt, he can generate more business and sell 25 more shirts per week while still generating the same $2000.00. At what price did he sell each shirt originally? A. $25.00 B. $20.00 C. $16.00 D. $15.00 E. $8.00 y x

29 COMPASS WRITING SKILLS SAMPLE SCREEN SHOT The figure below show a sample essay and test item similar to those in the Writing Skills Placement Test and illustrates how these materials would appear on the computer screen. Students are instructed to read the essay and to use the mouse to click on each section of the essay that they believe to be problematic. After a student clicks on a section of text, that secti on is highlighted, and four alternative text selections are shown in the right half of the screen. Students then select the section they believe best fixes the problem in the text, and then continue in this fashion until they believe they have identified all problems in the essay. They then click on the “Finished editing essay” button and are presented with several questions that address strategy, organization, and style. Students then click on the “Go On” button to proceed to the next computer - selected ess ay. The sample items on the following pages provide examples of the contents of the Writing Skills Placement Test.

30 SAMPLE WRITING SKILLS ESSAY (PLACEMENT) Examinees are presented with an essay similar to the one below and are asked to look for errors in grammar, punctuation, usage, and style. When examinees find what they believe to be errors, they move the mouse pointer to the appropriate part of the text and click the mouse. On the right side of the screen five options appear for revising that area of text. Note that the first option is always identical to the original wording in the text, and thus represents a NO CHANGE option. Examinees can choose to revise any section of the essay. After revising the essay, examinees are routed to two items focusi ng on rhetorical strategies. The essay below contains the same number and types of errors that an actual Writing Skills Test would contain; However, for demonstration purposes, only a handful of the segments below have been selected for revision These segments are indicated by bold type, and the items associated with them are shown on the next page. (Note: there are additional errors below that are not in bold that a student in an actual testing situation would need to respond to.) An increasing number of lakes and rivers in the northern United States invaded are being by a mussel no larger than a fingernail. The zebra mussel probably steamed aboard a transatlantic ship some time in the mid -1980s from the Caspian Sea into U.S. waters. Despite its growth was explosive, probably because the species was preyed upon by very few native predators in its new environment. As a consequence, the zebra mussels did find a plentiful food supply. They eat huge amounts of phytoplankton, which tiny free -floating sea org anisms that dwell in water. Scientists are concerned when the mussels may complete aggressively with other species that depend on the same food supply. Others concerned by the invading species are industry, public utilities, and boat owners. Zebra mussels cluster in huge colonies, being anchored themselves to any hard surface. These colonies can clog your water intake pipes of electric and water treatment plants. Fishery specialists are currently casting about and baiting their hooks to gun down control met hods that will cause the lowest amount of damage to water supplies and other aquatic species. Two of the alternatives exploring are interrupting the species reproductive cycle and finding a bacterium harmful only to zebra mussels. -----------------------------------------End of Essay -------------------------------------- (Basic Grammar and Usage: Ensuring Grammatical Agreement) Segment 1 A. An increasing number of lakes and rivers B. An increasingly number of lakes and rivers C. A number increasing of lakes and rive rs D. A number increasingly of lakes and rivers E. An increasing of lakes and river

31 (Style: Avoiding Redundancy) Segment 2 A. was preyed upon by very few predators in its new environment. B. found very few predators in its new environment. C. found very few native predat ors and was seldom eaten in its new environment. D. was preyed on by very few native predator species in its new environment. E. was seldom eaten or preyed on by native predator species in its new environment. (Sentence Structure: Relating Clauses) Segment 3 A. Sc ientists are concerned when the mussels B. Scientists are concerned that if the mussels C. Scientists are concerned wherein the mussels D. Scientists are concerned that the mussels E. Scientists are concerned as if the mussels (Strategy: Making Decisions about Cohesi ve Devices) Item 4 (end -of -passage) The writer wishes to add a sentence at the end of Paragraph 1 that will serve as a transition between Paragraphs 1 and 2 and will establish the main focus of the essay. Which of the following sentences most effectively f ulfills that purpose? A. The zebra mussel will provide a difficult challenge for public utility managers. B. The zebra mussel is only the latest in a series of newly introduced species to thrive in the U.S. C. No one knows how far south and west the zebra mussel is likely to spread, but scientists think they may be on the trail of important clues. D. Although small in size, the zebra mussel may become a huge problem for pleasure boat owners in North American waterways. E. Despite its size, however, the zebra mussel may ha ve a dramatic effect on North American waterways.

32 COMPASS READING SKILLS SAMPLE SCREEN SHOT The figure below shows a sample item similar to those in the Reading Placement Test and illustrates how a reading test passage and items would appear on the com puter screen. Students use the “More” buttons on the left half of the screen to move toward the beginning or the end of the passage. The numbered boxes in the lower right of the screen correspond to the questions associated with the current passage. The st udent can click on the boxes in any sequence, but must be sure to click on all boxes in order to respond to all relevant test questions. After the student answers all questions, the “Go On” button is enabled and the student clicks on it to proceed to the next computer selected passage and its associated test questions. The sample items on the following pages illustrate the types of passages and test questions in the reading placement pool.

33 SAMPLE COMPASS HUMANITIES READING PASSAGE When I’m in New York but feeling lonely for Wyoming I look for the Western movie ads in the subway. But the men I see in those posters with their stern, humorless looks remind me of no one I know in the West. In our earnestness to romanticize the cowboy we’ve ironically dises teemed his true character. If he’s “strong and silent” it’s because there’s probably no one to talk to. If he “rides away into the sunset” it’s because he’s been on horseback since four in the morning moving cattle and he’s trying, fifteen hours later, to get home to his family. If he’s “a rugged individualist” he’s also part of a team: ranch work is teamwork and even the glorified open -range cowboys of the 1880s rode up and down the Chisholm Trail in the company of twenty or thirty other riders. It’s not t oughness but “toughing it out” that counts. In other words, this macho, cultural artifact the cowboy has become is simply a man who possesses resilience, patience, and an instinct for survival. “Cowboys are just like a pile of rocks —everything happens to t hem. They get climbed on, kicked, rained and snowed on, scuffed up by the wind. Their job is ‘just to take it,’” one old timer told me. Adapted from Gretel Ehrlich, The Solace of Open Spaces.  1985 by Gretel Ehlich. (Referring) 1. According to the passage, cowboys are probably “strong and silent” because: A. their work leaves them no time for conversation. B. they have been cautioned not to complain. C. they are stern and humorless. D. there is no one nearby to listen to them. E. their work makes them too tired to talk. ( Reasoning) 2. For which of the following statements does the passage give apparently contradictory evidence? A. The cowboy’s work takes endurance. B. Cowboys work alone. C. Cowboys are adequately paid. D. The cowboy’s image has become romanticized in American culture. E. Co wboys think of themselves as humorless.

34 SAMPLE COMPASS PRACTICAL READING PASSAGE Regular tune -ups of your heating system will cut heating costs and will most likely increase the lifetime and safety of the system. When a service technician performs a tune -up, he or she should test the efficiency of your system. The technician should measure the efficiency of your system both before and after servicing it and provide you with a copy of the results. Combustion efficiency is determined indirectly, based on some of the following tests: 1) temperature of the flue (or chimney); 2) percent carbon dioxide or percent oxygen in the atmosphere; 3) presence of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere; and 4) draft. Incomplete combustion of fuel is the main contributor to low efficiency. If the technician cannot raise the combustion efficiency to at least 75% after tuning your heating system, you should consider installing a new system or at least modifying your present system to increase its efficiency. Adapted from Alex Wil son and John Morrill, Consumer Guide to Home Energy Savings .  1993 by the American Council for an Energy -Efficient Economy. (Reasoning) 1. The passage suggests that the presence of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere: A. can provide information regarding combust ion efficiency. B. is found in 75% of heating systems tested. C. can be reduced by decreasing heating system draft. D. is the main cause of low efficiency heating systems. E. is more reliable than flue temperature as an indicator of combustion efficiency. (Referring) 2. According to the passage, when performing a tune -up of a heating system, the service technician should: A. ensure that the combustion efficiency is at least 25%. B. modify the heating system before initially measuring efficiency. C. measure efficiency both before and after servicing the system. D. provide his or her superior with a written report of the system’s efficiency. E. Ignore the age of the heating system.

35 COMPASS MATHEMATICS PLACEMENT MEASURES SAMPLE SCREEN SHOT The figure below shows a sample item similar to those in the Algebra Placement Test and illustrates how a mathematics test item would appear on the computer screen. Students use the mouse to select an answer and then click on the “Go On” button to proceed to the next computer -selected question. The samp le items on the following pages provide examples of the contents of each of the three mathematics placement test pools used by the Maricopa Community College District. NOTE: The mathematics pools for COMPASS have been calibrated to accommodate calculato r-permitted administrations. The estimated effect of calculator use has been accounted for in a manner that allows scores to be interpreted the same as were scores produced in earlier versions of COMPASS. Clicking on the “Calculator” button from any COMPAS S mathematics test screen will bring up the default Windows calculator.

36 COMPASS NUMERICAL SKILLS/PREALGEBRA Percentage of Content Areas Items in Pool Basic operations with integers 16 Basic operations with fractions 17 Basic operations with decimals 14 Exponents, square roots, and scientific notation 13 Ratios and proportions 8 Percentages 15 Conversions between fractions and decimals

37 (Basic Operations with Decimals) 2. Ben is making wooden toys for the next arts and crafts sale. Each toy costs Ben $1.80 to make. If he sells the toys for $3.00 each, how many will he have to sell to make a profit of exactly $36.00? A. 12 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60 E. 108 (Basic Operat ions with Fractions) 3. How many yards of material from a 24 -yard length of cloth remain after 3 pieces, each 2 13 yards long, and 5 pieces, each 4 12 yards long, are removed? (Percentages) 4. Phillip charged $400 worth of goods on his credit card. On his first bill, he was not charged any interest, and he made a payment of $20. He then charged another $18 worth of goods. On his second bill a month later, he was charged 2% interest on his entire unpaid balance. How mu ch interest was Phillip charged on his second bill? A. $8.76 B. $7.96 C. $7.60 D. $7.24 E. $6.63 6 5 4 1 6 5 4 1 4 1 10 10 4 4 2 E. D. C. B. A.

38 COMPASS ALGEBRA PLACEMENT The Algebra Placement Test comprises topics from three major mathematics curricular areas, as follows: Percentage of Curricular Area Content Areas Items in Pool Elementary Algebra 57 Substituting values into algebraic equations 7 Setting up equations for given situations 7 Basic operations with polynomials 7 Factoring of polynomials 7 Solving polynomial equations by factoring 3 Formula manipulation and field axioms 2 Linear equations in one variable 16 Exponents and radicals 5 Linear inequalities in one variable 1 Intermediate Algebra 15 Rational expressions 7 Exponents and radicals 5 Systems of linear equations in two variables 2 Quadratic formulas

39 (Elementary Algebra: Linear Equations in One Variable) 1. A student has earned scores of 87, 81, and 88 on the first 3 of 4 tests. If the student wants an average (arithmetic mean) of exactly 87, what score must she earn on the fourth test? A. 85 B. 86 C. 87 D. 92 E. 93 (Elementary Algebra: Basic Operations with Polynomials) 2. Which of the following expr essions represents the product of 3 less than twice x and 2 more than the quantity 3 times x ? 6 13 6 6 5 6 6 5 6 6 5 6 6 25 6 2 2 2 2 2 − − − − + − + + + + − x x x x x x x x x x E. D. C. B. A. (Elementary Algebra: Substituting Values into Algebraic Expressions) A. 8 B. 4 C. –1 D. –4 E. -8 ? 3 2 expression the of value the is what , 2 and 1 If 3 xy x y x − = − = 3.

40 (Intermediate Algebra: Rational Expressions) 2 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 ? 4 6 5 , 2 all For 2 2 + + + + + − +− = − + − ≠ r r r- r r r- r r rr r r r r E. D. C. B. A. 4. (Coordinate Geometry:Linear Equations in Two Variables) 5. What is the equation of the line that contains the points with (x,y ) coordinates ( -3,7) and (5,- 1)? 4 4 11 2 3 8 3 1 10 2 3 + = + = + = + = − = -x y x y x y x y x y E. D. C. B. A.

41 COMPASS COLLEGE ALGEBRA PLACEMENT Percentage of Content Areas Items in Pool Functions 40 Exponents 25 Complex numbers 15 Arithmetic and geometric sequences and series 7 Factorials 6 Matrices (basic operations, equations, and determinants) 3 Systems of linear equations in th ree or more variables 1 Logic and proof techniques 1 Roots of polynomials 2 (Complex numbers) A. –15 B. 5 C. 5i D. 15i E. 27i (Functions) ? then , 6 ) 5 2 ( 3 if , 1 For 1. = + = + − = x i x i i i ? ) ( represent could following the of which , 6 ) 6 ( and 0 ) 4 ( If 2. x f f f = = 4 A. 3 2 −x 2 B. + x 4 C. − x 6 D. 2 3 +x 12 3 E. − x

42 1. a. are b. is c. am d. was ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE (ESL) CELSA PLACEMENT TESTING Read the following quickly. Sometimes you s ee four words in a box. Choose the best word to complete the story or conversation. There are four answers for each question. Only one answer is correct. Fill in the letter of the correct answer. Work quickly! Do the easy questions first, then go back for the others. Do not use a dictionary or a book. This is only a sample. On the actual test, you will have 45 minutes to complete 75 questions. HERE IS AN EXAMPLE: A JOB IN A BOOKSTORE Jim and Mary are friends. They want a job in a bookstore. Mr. Smith is the bookstore owner. MR. SMITH: Good afternoon. My name Mr. Smith.

43 JIM: name Jim and name is Mary. MR. SMIT H: Nice to you. MARY: We looking for jobs. MR. SMITH: Do you you have any experience in a bookstore? JIM: Yes, I some experience. I for two years. 2. a. I’m b. I c. Me d. Mine 3. a. his b. she c. my d. her 5. a. is b. want c. are d. am 6. a. Does b. Do c. Are d. I s 7. a. am b. do c. have d. has 8. a. was b. worked c. working d. works 4. a. meet b. greet c. like d. talk

44 MR. SMITH: What did you ? JIM : I a cashier, but I am not now. MARY: I my father in his restaurant one year. MR. SMITH: When you work? What days are you ? 9. a. do b. does c. did d. are 10 a. was b. is c. want d. sell 13. a. from b. to c. in d. for 11 . a. work b. will work c. working d. worked 14. a. can b. are c. is d. be 15. a. upset b. angry c. hungry d. free 12. a. help b. helping c. helped d. will help

45 ANSWER KEYS Accuplacer Sentence Skills 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. D Reading Comp 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. A Arithmetic 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. C Accuplacer Elem Algebra 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A ASSET Writing Skills 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. C Reading 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A Numerical Skills 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B Elementary Algebra 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D

46 ASSET Intermediate Alegebra 1. E 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. E College Algebra 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. E 5. B COMPASS Writing Skills 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. E Reading Humanities 1. D 2. B Reading Practical 1. A 2. C Pre -Algebra 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B Algebra 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. E College Algebra 1. A 2. E CELSA 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D

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