[PDF] SAT Practice Test 4 Answers.pdf | Plain Text

1Answer Explanations SAT Practice Test #4 Section 1: Reading Test QUESTION 1. Choice C is the best answer. The narrator initially expresses uncertainty, or uneasiness, over his decision to set out for the North Pole: “my motives in this undertaking are not entirely clear” (lines 9-10). At the end of the pas- sage, the narrator recognizes that because of this journey he is “on the brink of knowing . . . not an ethereal mathematical spot,” the North Pole, but him- self (lines 56-57). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not suggest that he fears going on the expedition, doubts his own abilities, or feels disdain for the North Pole. QUESTION 2. Choice D is the best answer. Lines 56-57 provide evidence that the narra- tor eventually recognizes his motives for traveling to the North Pole: “What I am on the brink of knowing, I now see, is not an ephemeral mathematical spot but myself.” The narrator initially was unsure of why he was traveling to the North Pole, but realizes that he has embarked on a journey to find himself. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi- dence that the narrator eventually recognizes his motives for traveling to the North Pole. Rather, choices A, B, and C all focus on the narrator’s prepara- tions and expectations for the journey. QUESTION 3. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 1-6, the narrator says that he feels a “vast yearning” and that his emotions are “complicated.” He explains that he does “not understand quite what it is that the yearning desires.” In this con- text, his emotions are “not readily verifiable,” or not completely understood.

2Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “not readily verifi- able” does not mean unable to be authenticated, likely to be contradicted, or without empirical support. QUESTION 4. Choice C is the best answer. In lines 10-13, the narrator explains that “the machinery of [his] destiny has worked in secret” to prepare him for this journey, as “its clockwork” has propelled him to “this time and place.” By using the phrases “the machinery” and “its clockwork,” the narrator is show- ing that powerful and independent forces are causing him to journey to the North Pole. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate the main purpose of lines 10-13. While lines 10-13 mention that these powerful and independent forces have been working “for years, for a lifetime” to convince the narrator to journey to the North Pole, they do not expose a hidden side of the narrator, demonstrate the narrator’s manner, or explain the amount of time the narrator has spent preparing for his expedition. QUESTION 5. Choice A is the best answer. In lines 20-21, the narrator states that many people have perished while journeying to the North Pole: “Nobody has suc- ceeded in this thing, and many have died.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not indicate that previous explorers have made surprising discoveries, have failed to deter - mine the exact location of the North Pole, or had different motivations than his own. QUESTION 6. Choice A is the best answer. In lines 20-21, the narrator provides evidence that many previous explorers seeking the North Pole have perished in the attempt: “Nobody has succeeded in this thing, and many have died.” Choices B, C, and D do not mention previous explorers; therefore, these lines do not provide the best evidence that explorers died while seeking the North Pole. QUESTION 7. Choice B is the best answer. In lines 27-39, the narrator states that he is “intent” on traveling to the North Pole but acknowledges that the journey is absurd: “Who wants the North Pole! What good is it! Can you eat it? Will it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like a railway?” By asking these questions, the narrator recognizes that the North Pole has no practical value.

3Still, the narrator admits that finding the North Pole is necessary, as it “must nevertheless be sought for.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not view his expedition to the North Pole as immoral, socially beneficial, or scientifically important. QUESTION 8. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 27-31, the narrator asks a series of rhe- torical questions about the North Pole: “Who wants the North Pole! What good is it! Can you eat it? Will it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like a railway?” In this context, the narrator is suggesting that reaching the North Pole has no foreseeable benefit or value to humanity; unlike trains that bring travelers to specific destinations, the North Pole does not provide humans with a specific benefit or form of convenience. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the question posed in lines 30-31 does not debate modes of travel, examine the proximity of cities that can be reached by trains, or question how often people travel. QUESTION 9. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 48-49, the narrator states that the North Pole “is an abstraction, a mathematical fiction” and that “no one but a Swedish madman could take the slightest interest in it.” In this context, the narrator is stating that people would not “take the slightest interest in,” or be curious about, the North Pole. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “take the slightest interest in” does not mean to accept responsibility for, to possess little regard for, or to pay no attention to something. QUESTION 10. Choice A is the best answer. In lines 49-51, the narrator describes his bal- loon journey toward the North Pole: “The wind is still from the south, bear - ing us steadily northward at the speed of a trotting dog.” In this context, the wind is “bearing,” or carrying, the narrator in a direction to the North. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “bearing” does not mean affecting, yielding, or enduring. QUESTION 11. Choice C is the best answer. The author states that “demographic inver - sion is not a proxy for population growth” (lines 32-33). In other words, demographic inversion is distinct from population growth. The author also notes that demographic inversion is evident in many American cities, as it

4“can occur in cities that are growing, those whose numbers are flat, and even in those undergoing a modest decline in size” (lines 33-35). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not summarize the first paragraph. QUESTION 12. Choice D is the best answer. The author notes that one of “the most power - ful demographic events of the past decade [was] the movement of African Americans out of central cities” (lines 14-17). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the author does not state that the unemployed, immigrants, or young professionals moved away from central- city areas in large numbers in the early 2000s. QUESTION 13. Choice A is the best answer. The author states that democratic inversion “can occur in cities that are growing, those whose numbers are flat, and even in those undergoing a modest decline in size” (lines 33-35). In this context, cities whose “numbers,” or population size, are “flat” have static, or unchang - ing, populations. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “flat” does not mean deflated, featureless, or obscure. QUESTION 14. Choice B is the best answer. The author states that many major American cities are currently experiencing economic hardship, or “enormous fiscal problems,” because of “public pension obligations they incurred in the more prosperous years of the past two decades” (lines 36-39). The author then provides the example of Chicago, a city that can no longer afford to pay the “public services to which most of [its] citizens have grown to feel entitled” (lines 41-43). The author is arguing that many major American cities face economic hardship due to past promises (such as public services) they made to their constituents. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not discuss expected tax increases, an inner-city tax base, or manufacturing production as they relate to the financial status of many major American cities. QUESTION 15. Choice A is the best answer. In lines 36-39, the author provides evidence that many major American cities are currently experiencing economic hard- ship due to promises made in past years: “America’s major cities face enor - mous fiscal problems, many of them the result of public pension obligations

5they incurred in the more prosperous years of the past two decades.” America’s major cities made past promises, such as “public pension obliga- tions,” to their citizens, which caused their current financial situation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that many major American cities are currently experiencing economic hardship due to promises made in past years. QUESTION 16. Choice C is the best answer. The author explains how sociologist Ernest W. Burgess determined that urban areas have a traditional four-zone struc- ture (lines 54-63). He then states that Burgess was “right about the urban America of 1974” (line 65) as it also followed the traditional four-zone structure: “Virtually every city in the country had a downtown, where the commercial life of the metropolis was conducted; it had a factory district just beyond; it had districts of working-class residences just beyond that; and it had residential suburbs for the wealthy and the upper middle class at the far end of the continuum” (lines 66-71). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the passage does not imply that American cities in 1974 were witnessing the flight of minority populations to the suburbs, had begun to lose their manufacturing sectors, or were already experiencing demographic inversion. QUESTION 17. Choice C is the best answer. In lines 66-71, the author provides evidence that American cities in 1974 had a traditional four-zone structure: “Virtually every city in the country had a downtown, where the commercial life of the metropolis was conducted; it had a factory district just beyond; it had districts of working-class residences just beyond that; and it had residen- tial suburbs for the wealthy and the upper middle class at the far end of the continuum.” Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that American urban cities in 1974 had a traditional four-zone structure. Choice A references a seminal paper on the layout of American cities, choice B identifies Burgess’s original theory, and choice D focuses on movement to the suburbs. QUESTION 18. Choice A is the best answer. In lines 66-68, the author notes that American cities in 1974 each had a “downtown, where the commercial life of the metropolis was conducted.” In this context, the author is stating that these cities “conducted,” or carried out, business, the “commercial life,” in down- town areas.

6Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “conducted” does not mean supervised, regulated, or inhibited. QUESTION 19. Choice B is the best answer. Chart 1 shows the percentage of the US popu- lation in 2010 that lived in non-metro, small metro, and large metro areas. While the author cites census numbers, he notes that “when it comes to measuring demographic inversion, raw census numbers are an ineffective blunt instrument” (lines 11-13). Census data refer to the number of people living in a specific area and the demographic information that’s been col- lected on them. The author would most likely consider the information in chart 1 to be possibly accurate but an “ineffective blunt instrument” that’s not truly informative. Choices A and C are incorrect because the author would not consider census data to be excellent or compelling. Choice D is incorrect because while the author does not believe the census completely explains demographic inver - sion, he would be unlikely to disagree with the census data. QUESTION 20. Choice A is the best answer. Chart 2 shows that the growth of all metro- politan areas in the 1990s was higher than the growth in all metropolitan areas in the 2000s: large metro areas experienced a growth of 14.3% in the 1990s versus a growth of 10.9% in the 2000s, small metro areas experienced a growth of 13.1% in the 1990s versus a growth of 10.3% in the 2000s, and non-metro areas experienced a growth of 9.0% in the 1990s versus a growth of 4.5% in the 2000s. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately character - ize the US growth rate by metro size from 2000-2010 as illustrated in chart 2. QUESTION 21. Choice D is the best answer. Chart 2 shows that in the 1990s the US pop- ulation increased in large metro, small metro, and non-metro areas when compared to the population growth experienced in the 1980s. Large metro areas experienced a growth of 12.5% in the 1980s versus a growth of 14.3% in the 1990s, small metro areas experienced a growth of 8.8% in the 1980s versus a growth of 13.1% in the 1990s, and non-metro areas experienced a growth of 1.8% in the 1980s versus a growth of 9.0% in the 1990s. Given this information, the population grew more in all metro areas in the 1990s when compared to the growth of those areas in the 1980s. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not draw an accurate con- clusion about the US growth rate in the 1990s.

7QUESTION 22. Choice A is the best answer. Lines 9-11 introduce the focus of the passage: “Welcome to the world of ‘pharming,’ in which simple genetic tweaks turn animals into living pharmaceutical factories.” The passage then discusses the chronological development of “pharming,” and describes ATryn, a useful drug produced after decades of laboratory experiments. Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage does not primarily evalu- ate research or summarize long-term research findings. Choice D is incor - rect because “pharming” is not a branch of scientific study. QUESTION 23. Choice C is the best answer. The author is appreciative of pharming and describes it as turning “animals into living pharmaceutical factories” (lines 10-11). She expresses a positive view of pharming in line 70, when she describes its end result: “Et voilà —human medicine!” Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the author’s attitude about pharm- ing is not accurately characterized as one of fear, disinterest, or surprise. QUESTION 24. Choice C is the best answer. In lines 19-21, the author explains that dairy animals are “expert,” or capable, “protein producers.” Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context “expert” does not mean knowledgeable, professional, or trained. QUESTION 25. Choice B is the best answer. In line 36, the author explains that the initial transgenic studies were “lab-bound thought experiments come true.” Those first studies, in other words, were considered to be of theoretical value only. They were not expected to yield products ready for human use. Choices A and D are incorrect because the cost of animal research and the molecular properties of certain animals are not discussed in the passage. Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that all of the transgenic studies were focused on anticoagulants. QUESTION 26. Choice C is the best answer. In lines 35-36, the author provides evidence that the transgenic studies done in the 1980s and 1990s were not expected to yield products ready for human use. The author explains that the initial transgenic studies were “merely gee-whiz, scientific geekery, lab-bound thought experiments come true.”

8Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that the transgenic studies done in the 1980s and 1990s were not expected to yield products ready for human use. Choices A and B do not address the transgenic studies, and choice D focuses on ATryn, a drug that was intended for human use. QUESTION 27. Choice A is the best answer. Lines 42-44 explain that ATryn “acts as a molecular bouncer, sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting them out of the bloodstream.” Antithrombin can thus be seen as an agent that reduces the amount of dangerous clots in the bloodstream. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not suggest that antithrombin stems from a rare genetic mutation, is a sequence of DNA, or occurs naturally in goats’ mammary glands. QUESTION 28. Choice B is the best answer. Lines 42-44 provide evidence that antithrom- bin reduces compounds that lead to blood clots, as it acts as a “molecular bouncer, sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting them out of the bloodstream.” Choices A, C, and D do not provide evidence that antithrombin reduces compounds that lead to blood clots; these lines describe proteins, people unable to produce antithrombin, and the production of ATryn. QUESTION 29. Choice B is the best answer. In lines 60-62, the description of female goats’ kids mentions that “some of them proved to be transgenic, the human gene nestled safely in their cells.” The statement “some of them” indicates that while a number of the newborn goats were transgenic, others were not. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not suggest that the female goats used in the initial experiment secreted antithrombin in their milk after giving birth, were the first animals to receive the microinjec- tions, or had cells that contained genes usually found in humans. QUESTION 30. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 63-64, the parenthetical is added after the phrase “a promoter,” which is “(. . . a sequence of DNA that controls gene activity).” The parenthetical’s purpose is to define the term “promoter.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not correctly identify the purpose of the parenthetical information in lines 63-64.

9QUESTION 31. Choice D is the best answer. Gold is a valuable element that commands high prices, so calling something “liquid gold” implies that it has great value. Because the pharmaceutical company GTC was producing the drug in order to sell it, it can be inferred that describing ATryn as “liquid gold” means it proved to be a lucrative product for GTC. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the phrase “liquid gold” does not refer to the microinjection technique, efficiency in dairy production, or transgenic goats being beneficial to dairy farmers. QUESTION 32. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 25-29, Burke describes the contract between a person and society as one that is “not a partnership in things sub- servient only to the gross animal existence of a temporary and perishable nature. It is a partnership in all science; a partnership in all art; a partnership in every virtue, and in all perfection.” Describing that contract as a partner - ship in all things indicates its seriousness, while describing it as not being a “temporary and perishable nature” implies its permanence. Choice A is incorrect because line 27 states that the contract between a per - son and society is not “temporary or perishable,” meaning it is not brief. Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage does not compare the contracts in terms of complexity or precision. QUESTION 33. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 1-9, Burke explains that people have “consecrated the state” to “avoid . . . the evils of inconstancy and versatility,” and that people should examine “the faults of the state . . . with pious awe and trembling solitude.” Burke then explains that society is taught to “look with horror on those children of their country who want to hack that aged parent in pieces” (lines 10-12). Burke is arguing that children want to revise the state, or “this aged parent,” by amending its faults. In this context, “state” refers to a political entity, or government, that attempts to protect its citizens from “the evils of inconstancy and versatility.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “state” does not mean style of living, position in life, or temporary condition. QUESTION 34. Choice A is the best answer. In lines 17-29, Burke argues that “subordinate contracts,” are simply business agreements over traded goods, while the state is not merely “a partnership agreement in a trade . . . or some other such low concern . . . but a partnership in all science; a partnership in all art;

10a partnership in every virtue, and in all perfection.” In this context, Burke is stating that the state is not a contract consisting of “low” or petty concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “low” does not mean weak, inadequate, or depleted. QUESTION 35. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 41-43, Paine asserts that “Every age and generation must be as free to act for itself, in all cases, as the ages and genera- tions which preceded it.” He later states that deceased citizens of a state should no longer have “any authority in directing who shall be its governors, or how its government shall be organized, or how administered” (lines 61-63). Paine doesn’t believe, in other words, that the decisions of previous generations should dictate the conditions of modern life and government. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately character - ize the way Paine views historical precedents. QUESTION 36. Choice B is the best answer. In lines 30-34, Burke describes societal con- tracts as long-term agreements that preserve the interests of past generations and link the living and the dead into a “partnership.” Paine, however, states that past generations have no “control” over the decisions made by living (line 71) because the dead have “no longer any participation in the concerns of this world” (lines 59-60). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately character - ize how Paine would respond to Burke’s claim that societal contracts link past and current generations. QUESTION 37. Choice D is the best answer. Lines 67-72 provide the best evidence that Paine would respond to Burke’s statement that society is a “partnership” between past and current generations (lines 30-34) with the explanation that the current generation cannot know what judgments the dead would make about contemporary issues. In these lines Paine explains: “What possible obligation, then, can exist between them; what rule or principle can be laid down, that two nonentities, the one out of existence, and the other not in, and who never can meet in this world, that the one should control the other to the end of time?” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lines cited do not provide the best evidence that Paine would respond to Burke’s statement that society is a “partnership” between past and current generations (lines 30-34) by arguing that the current generation cannot know what judgments the dead would make about contemporary issues.

11QUESTION 38. Choice D is the best answer. Paine concludes Passage 2 with the argument that because social issues change over time, the living should not try to adhere to decisions made by former generations (lines 73-80). Burke, how- ever, states that living citizens exist within a “universal kingdom” (line 35) comprised of the living, the dead, and those who are not yet born. Burke argues that the living do not have the right to change their government based on “their speculations of a contingent improvement” (lines 36-37). Therefore, Burke would disapprove of Paine’s concluding argument, as he believes the living do not have sufficient justification for changing the exist- ing governmental structure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how Burke would likely have responded to Paine’s remarks in the final para- graph of Passage 2. QUESTION 39. Choice D is the best answer. Lines 34-38 provide the best evidence that Burke would disapprove of Paine’s remarks in the final paragraph of Passage 2: “The municipal corporations of that universal kingdom are not morally at liberty at [the living’s] pleasure, and on their speculations of a contingent improve- ment, wholly to separate and tear asunder the bands of their subordinate community.” In these lines, Burke is arguing that the living do not have suf- ficient justification to change the existing governmental structure. Choices A, B, and C do not provide the best evidence that Burke would disapprove of Paine’s remarks in the final paragraph of Passage 2, as Burke believes the living do not have sufficient justification for changing the exist- ing governmental structure. QUESTION 40. Choice A is the best answer. The primary argument of Passage 1 is that an inviolable contract exists between a people and its government, one that is to be “looked on with other reverence” (lines 24-25). Passage 1 suggests that this contract exists between past and future generations as well; in effect, current and future generations should be governed by decisions made in the past. Passage 2 challenges these points, as it argues that current and future generations are not obligated to preserve past generations’ beliefs: “The Parliament or the people of 1688, or of any other period, had no more right to dispose of the people of the present day, or to bind or to control them in any shape whatever, than the parliament or the people of the present day have to dispose of, bind, or control those who are to live a hundred or a thousand years hence” (lines 48-54).

12Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Passage 2 does not offer an alter - native approach to Passage 1, support an idea introduced in Passage 1, or exemplify an attitude promoted in Passage 1. QUESTION 41. Choice B is the best answer. Passage 1 argues that the government is sacred (lines 3-6) and that no person should interfere with it (lines 6-9). Passage 2 argues that people have the right to make changes to their government: “The circumstances of the world are continually changing, and the opinions of men change also; and as government is for the living, and not for the dead, it is the living only that has any right in it” (lines 73-76). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not identify the main purpose of both passages. QUESTION 42. Choice C is the best answer. The author explains that a “powerful volcano” erupted around 750 years ago and caused “a centuries-long cold snap known as the Little Ice Age” (lines 1-3). The author then states that a group of sci- entists believe the volcano Samalas was this “powerful volcano,” and she explains how the scientists’ research supports this claim (lines 17-78). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not identify the main purpose of the passage. QUESTION 43. Choice B is the best answer. The author begins the passage by explaining how the Little Ice Age was a “centuries-long cold snap” that was likely caused by a volcanic eruption (lines 1-3). The author then explains how scientists used radiocarbon analysis to determine when the Little Ice Age began and how a volcanic eruption triggered the cooling temperatures (lines 17-25). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not criticize a scientific model, offer a new method of measuring sulfates, or shift from the use of radiocarbon dating to an examination of volcanic glass. QUESTION 44. Choice A is the best answer. In lines 17-25, the passage shifts focus from describing a recorded event to providing evidence that the Little Ice Age was likely caused by a volcanic eruption. The passage states that scientists used “radiocarbon dating of dead plant material from beneath the ice caps on Baffin Island and Iceland, as well as ice and sediment core data” to determine when the Little Ice Age began and how it was connected to the “mystery” volcanic eruption.

13Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi- dence that the passage shifts focus from a description of a recorded event to its likely cause. Choices B, C, and D all focus on the scientists’ research but do not explain what caused the Little Ice Age. QUESTION 45. Choice D is the best answer. According to lines 5-8, “That a powerful volcano erupted somewhere in the world, sometime in the Middle Ages, is written in polar ice cores in the form of layers of sulfate deposits and tiny shards of volca- nic glass.” The phrase “is written in” reinforces the idea that the polar ice caps contain evidence of the volcanic eruption, and that scientists can interpret this evidence by examining the “sulfate deposits and tiny shards of volcanic glass.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the author does not use the phrase “is written in” to demonstrate the concept of the hands-on nature of the sci- entists’ work, highlight the fact that scientists often write about their work, or underscore the sense of importance scientists have about their work. QUESTION 46. Choice A is the best answer. The scientists believe the volcano Samalas, located in Indonesia, was most likely the medieval volcanic eruption (lines 33-35). The eruption likely occurred near the equator because an equatorial location is “consistent with the apparent climate impacts” the sci- entists observed (lines 61-67). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scientists do not suggest that the medieval volcanic eruption was located in the Arctic region, the Antarctic region, or Ecuador. QUESTION 47. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 61-64, the author cites geochemist Gifford Miller’s findings that provide evidence that the medieval volcanic eruption most likely occurred in Indonesia near the equator: “It’s not a total surprise that an Indonesian volcano might be the source of the eruption, Miller says. ‘An equatorial eruption is more consistent with the apparent cli- mate impacts.’” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that the medieval volcanic eruption most likely occurred in Indonesia near the equator. Rather, choices A, B, and C focus on the medieval volcano’s power, impact, and magnitude. QUESTION 48. Choice C is the best answer. In lines 68-71, the author states, “Another possible candidate—both in terms of timing and geographical location—is Ecuador’s

14Quilotoa, estimated to have last erupted between 1147 and 1320 C.E.” The phrase “another possible candidate” implies that the scientists believe that in the Middle Ages a different volcanic eruption, such as an eruption from the vol- cano Quilotoa, could have been responsible for the onset of the Little Ice Age. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the phrase “another possible can- didate” does not imply the frequency or effects of volcanic eruptions, or that some volcanoes have large calderas. QUESTION 49. Choice D is the best answer. In lines 71-75, the author explains how Lavigne’s team proved that Quilotoa’s eruption did not cause the Little Ice Age: “But when Lavigne’s team examined shards of volcanic glass from this vol- cano, they found that they didn’t match the chemical composition of the glass found in polar ice cores, whereas the Samalas glass is a much closer match.” These findings show that Samalas, not Quilotoa, was responsible for the onset of the Little Ice Age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they focus on the difficulty of identifying the volcano responsible for the Little Ice Age, the magnitude of the volcanic eruption, and the researchers’ experiment. QUESTION 50. Choice C is the best answer. The data in the figure show the greatest below- average temperature variation occurred in 1675 CE, as the temperature reached a variation of −1.0° Celsius. Choice A is incorrect because the figure shows that the temperature in 1200 CE was above average (+0.25° Celsius). Choices B and D are incor - rect because the below-average temperature variation reported in 1675 CE (at −1.0° Celsius) was greater than the below-average temperature varia - tion reported for 1375 CE (around −0.25° Celsius) and 1750 CE (around (−0.5° Celsius). QUESTION 51. Choice B is the best answer. The passage says that the Little Ice Age began “about 750 years ago” (line 1) and that “the cold summers and ice growth began abruptly between 1275 and 1300 C.E.” (lines 23-24). The figure indicates that average temperatures in central England began to drop around 1275 CE, and this drop in temperatures continued “through the 1700s” (line 32). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage and figure do not indicate that the Little Ice Again began around 1150 CE, just before 1500 CE, or around 1650 CE.

15QUESTION 52. Choice A is the best answer. The figure shows that the greatest cooling period of the Little Ice Age occurred between 1500 and 1700 CE; it also shows that the greatest warming period of the Medieval Warm Period occurred between 1150 and 1250 CE. Therefore, the Little Ice Age’s greatest cooling occurred a couple of centuries, or “hundreds of years,” after the tem- perature peaks of the Medieval Warm Period. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the figure does not focus on equa- torial volcanic eruptions, pyroclastic flows, or radiocarbon analysis. Section 2: Writing and Language Test QUESTION 1. Choice B is the best answer because the relative clause appropriately modi- fies the noun “work” in the preceding independent clause. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each creates a comma splice. QUESTION 2. Choice B is the best answer because it creates the appropriate contrasting transition from the fact that the first two panels were painted during the day to the fact that the third panel was painted at night. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each creates an inappropriate transition from the previous sentence. Choice A and choice D imply addi- tion rather than contrast. Choice C results in an incomplete sentence. QUESTION 3. Choice B is the best answer because it creates an appropriate appositive to the subject “mural,” and is correctly set off by commas on both sides. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each is incorrectly punctuated. Choice A lacks a comma after “centerpiece,” choice C unnecessarily intro - duces an independent clause, and choice D contains an em dash that has no parallel earlier in the sentence. QUESTION 4. Choice A is the best answer because it explicitly introduces the explanation for the behavior (painting at night) described in the previous paragraph. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none alludes to the artist’s paint- ing at night, which is described at the end of the previous paragraph and explained in this paragraph.

16QUESTION 5. Choice D is the best answer because it refers to an action that can be per - formed on a physical object such as a mural. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each refers to an action that is performed on information rather than on a physical object. QUESTION 6. Choice B is the best answer because it creates a past tense construction consistent with the verb “was dominated.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none is consistent with the verb tense established earlier in the sentence. QUESTION 7. Choice D is the best answer because it is the most precise choice, specifying the noun that the demonstrative pronoun “this” refers to. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each provides a vague, nonspecific pronoun that does not concretely define a referent. QUESTION 8. Choice B is the best answer because it correctly places and punctuates the appositive phrase that describes the “Chicano mural movement.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains awkward syntax that obscures the relationship between the key noun phrases “an explosion of mural painting” and “the Chicano mural movement.” QUESTION 9. Choice C is the best answer because it creates parallel construction within the list of locations (“in abandoned lots, on unused buildings, or on infrastructure”). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none follows the construction established within the list of locations. QUESTION 10. Choice A is the best answer because it alludes to the uniquely high level of investment, described in the next sentence, that the new group of artists is making in restoring and publicizing “América Tropical.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each fails to express the connec- tion between the general restoration efforts mentioned in the previous sen- tence and the specific role of “América Tropical” in these efforts, which is described in the next sentence.

17QUESTION 11. Choice C is the best answer because details of the initial reaction to Siqueiros’s mural and its subsequent rediscovery are given previously in the passage and are not needed to set up the forward-looking sentence that follows. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides an inaccurate inter - pretation of the sentence that the writer is considering adding. QUESTION 12. Choice D is the best answer because without the underlined portion, the sentence contains an appropriate parallel contrast between the phrases “organically grown crops” and “conventionally grown counterparts,” each of which describes crops. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each creates an illogical compari- son: crops to “people,” crops to “purchase,” and crops to “purchasing.” QUESTION 13. Choice B is the best answer because it provides the subject “consumers,” creating a complete sentence and providing a referent for the pronoun “they” that appears later in the sentence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each lacks the subject that the sentence requires and none provide a referent for “they.” QUESTION 14. Choice D is the best answer because it efficiently creates a contrast with “organically grown.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are unnecessarily wordy and repeat information given in previous sentences. QUESTION 15. Choice C is the best answer because it sets up the contrast between the added expense of organic food and the evidence that suggests a lack of ben- efits from eating organic food. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to acknowledge the con- trast between the last sentence in the paragraph and the previous sentences. QUESTION 16. Choice C is the best answer because “maintain” is commonly used to describe advocating a position in an argument.

18Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none is appropriate in the context of describing an opinion advocated by a group of people. QUESTION 17. Choice A is the best answer because the transitional phrase “For instance” sets up an example supporting the point, made in the previous sentence, that organic food may not contain more vitamins and minerals than convention- ally grown food. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none indicates that the sentence is providing an example supporting the point made in the previous sentence. QUESTION 18. Choice C is the best answer because it accurately identifies the reason that the writer should not add the proposed sentence: the paragraph is about evi- dence of nutritional content, not the availability of organic food. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides an inaccurate inter - pretation of the proposed sentence’s relationship to the passage. QUESTION 19. Choice A is the best answer because the plural verb “have” is consistent with the plural subject “amounts.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is a singular verb, which is inconsistent with the plural subject “amounts.” QUESTION 20. Choice C is the best answer because the example it supplies, that pesticides can be minimized by washing or peeling produce, supports the claim that nonorganic food is safe. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none supports the paragraph’s claim about the safety of nonorganic food. QUESTION 21. Choice B is the best answer because the plural noun phrase “numerous other reasons” must be preceded by a plural verb and a pronoun that does not indicate possession: “there are.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains the singular verb “is,” the possessive pronoun “their,” or both. QUESTION 22. Choice D is the best answer because a nonrestrictive clause must be pre- ceded by a comma; in addition, “such as” is never followed by a comma.

19In this case, the list of reasons supporting the claim that there are benefits to buying organic food is nonrestrictive; the list tells the reader something about organic food but does not restrict or place limits on organic food. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each places erroneous punc- tuation after the phrase “such as.” Choices B and C also lack the necessary comma preceding “such as.” QUESTION 23. Choice C is the best answer because “intriguing” conveys a realistic level of interest for the entertaining but ultimately inconsequential question of regional differences in words for carbonated beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each mocks the topic of regional words for carbonated beverages. QUESTION 24. Choice C is the best answer because “but also” is the appropriate transition to complete the correlative pair “not only . . . but also,” which begins earlier in the sentence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to complete the phrase “not only . . . but also.” QUESTION 25. Choice B is the best answer because it is consistent with the fact that there remains a “veritable army of trained volunteers traveling the country” and because it uses “still” to contrast this method with the “new avenues.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none is consistent with the infor - mation contained later in the passage. QUESTION 26. Choice D is the best answer because it uses the relative pronoun “who” to avoid needless repetition of the word “scholars.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each unnecessarily repeats the word “scholars.” QUESTION 27. Choice C is the best answer because the new sentence provides a logical tran- sition from sentences 3 and 4, which describe the data collection, to sentence 5, which explains that completing the dictionary took far longer than expected. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to create a logical transi- tion between the preceding and subsequent sentences.

20QUESTION 28. Choice A is the best answer because the singular verb “requires” agrees with the singular subject “research.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not create subject-verb agreement. QUESTION 29. Choice D is the best answer because a colon is the correct punctuation to introduce the elaborating phrase that follows the word “army.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none provides the appropriate punctuation. QUESTION 30. Choice B is the best answer because it contains both the correct word to refer to an Internet location—“site”—and the correct preposition to com- plete the collocation “in search of.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains a word that does not refer to an Internet location, and choices C and D contain the wrong preposition. QUESTION 31. Choice C is the best answer because it correctly associates each beverage term with the region described in the sentence according to the information contained in the map. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each contradicts the information contained in the map. QUESTION 32. Choice B is the best answer because it contains the two plural possessive pronouns needed to refer to the subject “findings”—“their” and “their.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains a word frequently confused with “their.” QUESTION 33. Choice A is the best answer because it provides a summary and evaluation of gathering data from the Internet, which is the focus of the paragraph. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is either irrelevant to the main point of the paragraph or unnecessarily repeats information.

21QUESTION 34. Choice C is the best answer because it uses the present tense, which is con- sistent with the verbs that appear later in the sentence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they create awkward shifts in tense. QUESTION 35. Choice C is the best answer because the em dashes correctly bracket the examples of the types of elements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each uses either inconsistent or incorrect punctuation to set off the types of elements. QUESTION 36. Choice B is the best answer because a period is an appropriate way to sepa- rate the two independent clauses that meet at the underlined text. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each either creates a comma splice or lacks necessary punctuation. QUESTION 37. Choice D is the best answer because the proposed sentence to be added is a paraphrase of the sentence before it, containing the same ideas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none fully acknowledges the rela- tionship between the proposed sentence to be added and the other sentences in the paragraph. QUESTION 38. Choice A is the best answer because it highlights the importance of the game designer’s communication with others, which is the paragraph’s main point. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none describes communica- tion originating with the game designer, which is the main focus of the paragraph. QUESTION 39. Choice C is the best answer because the importance of communication is established in the previous sentences. The transition “consequently” best captures the fact that the designer must be skilled in this area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each contains a transition that either repeats information or creates an illogical relationship between this sentence and the previous sentences.

22QUESTION 40. Choice B is the best answer because it provides the singular nouns “writer” and “speaker” to agree with the singular pronoun “anyone.” Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none creates pronoun-referent agreement. QUESTION 41. Choice D is the best answer because it expresses in the clearest, simplest way the idea that many game designers start out as programmers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each is unnecessarily wordy and obscures meaning. QUESTION 42. Choice D is the best answer because it logically and appropriately modifies the phrase “collaboration skills.” Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none appropriately describes the value of collaboration skills. QUESTION 43. Choice A is the best answer because it provides a logical subject for the modifying phrase “demanding and deadline driven.” Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each creates a dangling modifier. QUESTION 44. Choice B is the best answer because sentence 5 expresses the main point upon which the paragraph elaborates. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none places sentence 5 in the appropriate position to set up the details contained in the paragraph. Section 3: Math Test — No Calculator QUESTION 1. Choice A is correct. The expression |x − 1| −1 will equal 0 if |x − 1| = 1. This is true for x = 2 and for x = 0. For example, substituting x = 2 into the expres - sion |x − 1| − 1 and simplifying the result yields |2 − 1| − 1 = |1| − 1 = 1 − 1 = 0. Therefore, there is a value of x for which |x − 1| − 1 is equal to 0. Choice B is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any expression is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the expression

23| x + 1| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the sum of a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |x + 1| + 1 will be a positive number for any value of x . Therefore, |x + 1| + 1 ≠ 0 for any value of x . Choice C is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any expression is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the expression |1 − x | will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the sum of a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |1 − x | + 1 will be a positive number for any value of x . Therefore, |x − 1| + 1 ≠ 0 for any value of x . Choice D is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any expression is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the expression |x − 1| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the sum of a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |x − 1| + 1 will be a positive number for any value of x . Therefore, |x − 1| + 1 ≠ 0 for any value of x . QUESTION 2. Choice A is correct. Since f( x ) = 3 _ 2 x + b and f (6) = 7, substituting 6 for x in f(x) = 3 _ 2 x + b gives f(6) = 3 _ 2 (6) + b = 7. Then, solving the equation 3 _ 2 (6) + b = 7 for b gives 18 _ 2 + b = 7, or 9 + b = 7. Thus, b = 7 − 9 = −2. Substituting this value back into the original function gives f (x ) = 3 _ 2 x − 2; t herefore, one can evaluate f( −2) by substituting −2 for x : 3 _ 2 (−2) − 2 = − 6 _ 2 − 2 = −3 − 2 = −5. C hoice B is incorrect as it is the value of b , not of f(−2). Choice C is incorrect as it is the value of f (2), not of f(−2). Choice D is incorrect as it is the value of f (6), not of f (−2). QUESTION 3. Choice A is correct. The first equation can be rewritten as x = 6y. Substituting 6 y for x in the second equation gives 4(y + 1) = 6y. The left-hand side can be rewritten as 4y + 4, giving 4y + 4 = 6y. Subtracting 4y from both sides of the equation gives 4 = 2y , or y = 2. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of a computational or conceptual error when solving the system of equations. QUESTION 4. Choice B is correct. If f( x ) = − 2x + 5, then one can evaluate f(−3x ) by sub - stituting −3x for every instance of x . This yields f(−3x) = −2 (−3x) + 5, which simplifies to 6x + 5. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of miscalculations in the substitution or of misunderstandings of how to evaluate f (−3x).

24QUESTION 5. Choice C is correct. The expression 3(2x + 1)(4x + 1) can be simplified by first distributing the 3 to yield (6x + 3)(4x + 1), and then expanding to obtain 24x 2 + 12x + 6x + 3. Combining like terms gives 24 x 2 + 18x + 3. Choice A is incorrect and may be the result of performing the term-by-term multiplication of 3(2x + 1)(4x + 1) and treating every term as an x -term. Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of correctly finding (6x + 3)(4x + 1), but then multiplying only the first terms, (6x )(4x), and the last terms, (3)(1), but not the outer or inner terms. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result of incorrectly distributing the 3 to both terms to obtain (6x + 3)(12x + 3), and then adding 3 + 3 and 6x + 12x and incorrectly adding the exponents of x. QUESTION 6. Choice B is correct. The equation a − b _ b = 3 _ 7 c an be rewritten as a_ b − b_ b = 3 _ 7 , from which it follows that a_ b− 1 = 3 _ 7 , or a_ b = 3 _ 7 + 1 = 10 _ 7 . Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors in rewriting a − b _ b = 3 _ 7 . F or example, choice A may be the result of a sign error in rewriting a − b _ b as a_ b + b_ b = a _ b + 1 . QUESTION 7. Choice D is correct. In Amelia’s training schedule, her longest run in week 16 will be 26 miles and her longest run in week 4 will be 8 miles. Thus, Amelia increases the distance of her longest run by 18 miles over the course of 12 weeks. Since Amelia increases the distance of her longest run each week by a constant amount, the amount she increases the distance of her longest run each week is 26 − 8 _ 16 − 4 = 18 _ 12 = 3 _ 2 = 1.5 mi les. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these training schedules would result in increasing Amelia’s longest run from 8 miles in week 4 to 26 miles in week 16. For example, choice A is incorrect because if Amelia increases the distance of her longest run by 0.5 miles each week and has her longest run of 8 miles in week 4, her longest run in week 16 would be 8 + 0.5 ∙ 12 = 14 miles, not 26 miles. QUESTION 8. Choice A is correct. For an equation of a line in the form y = mx + b, the constant m is the slope of the line. Thus, the line represented by y = −3x + 4 has slope −3. Lines that are parallel have the same slope. To find out which of the given equations represents a line with the same slope as the line represented by y = −3x + 4, one can rewrite each equation in the form y = mx + b, that is, solve each equation for y . Choice A, 6x + 2 y = 15, can

25be rewritten as 2y = −6x + 15 by subtracting 6x from each side of the equa- tion. Then, dividing each side of 2y = −6x + 15 by 2 gives y = − 6 _ 2 x + 15 _ 2 = −3x + 15 _ 2 . Th erefore, this line has slope −3 and is parallel to the line repre- sented by y = −3x + 4. (The lines are parallel, not coincident, because they have different y -intercepts.) Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of common misun- derstandings about which value in the equation of a line represents the slope of the line. QUESTION 9. Choice D is correct. The question states that √ _ x − a = x − 4 and that a = 2, so substituting 2 for a in the equation yields √ _ x − 2 = x − 4. To solve for x , square each side of the equation, which gives ( √ _ x − 2 ) 2 = ( x − 4 ) 2 , or x − 2 = ( x − 4 ) 2 . Then, expanding ( x − 4 ) 2 yields x − 2 = x 2 −8x + 16, or 0 = x 2 − 9x + 18. Factoring the right-hand side gives 0 = (x − 3)(x − 6), and so x = 3 or x = 6. However, for x = 3, the original equation becomes √ _ 3 − 2 = 3 − 4, w hich yields 1 = −1, which is not true. Hence, x = 3 is an extraneous solution that arose from squaring each side of the equation. For x = 6, the original equation becomes √ _ 6 − 2 = 6 − 4, w hich yields √ _ 4 = 2, or 2 = 2. Since this is true, the solution set of √ _ x − 2 = x − 4 is {6} . C hoice A is incorrect b ecause it includes the extraneous solution in the solu- tion set. Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of a calculation or fac - toring error. Choice C is incorrect because it includes only the extraneous solution, and not the correct solution, in the solution set. QUESTION 10. Choice D is correct. Multiplying each side of t + 5 _ t − 5 = 10 b y t − 5 gives t + 5 = 10(t − 5). Distributing the 10 over the values in the parentheses yields t + 5 = 10t − 50. Subtracting t from each side of the equation gives 5 = 9t − 50, and then adding 50 to each side gives 55 = 9t . Finally, dividing each side by 9 yields t = 55 _ 9 . Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors or using the distribution property improperly. QUESTION 11. Choice C is correct. Since y = (2 x − 3)(x + 9) and x = 2y + 5, it follows that x = 2 ( ( 2 x − 3 ) ( x + 9 ) ) + 5 = 4 x 2 + 30x − 54. This can be rewritten as 4 x 2 + 29 x − 54 = 0. Because the discriminant of this quadratic equa- tion, 29 2 − (4)(−54) = 29 2 + 4(54), is positive, this equation has 2 distinct roots. Using each of the roots as the value of x and finding y from the equa- tion x = 2y + 5 gives 2 ordered pairs (x , y) that satisfy the given system of

26equations. Since no other value of x satisfies 4 x 2 + 29x − 54 = 0, there are no other ordered pairs that satisfy the given system. Therefore, there are 2 ordered pairs (x , y) that satisfy the given system of equations. Choices A and B are incorrect and may be the result of either a miscalculation or a conceptual error. Choice D is incorrect because a system of one quadratic equation and one linear equation cannot have infinitely many solutions. QUESTION 12. Choice C is correct. Since the price of Ken’s sandwich was x dollars, and Paul’s sandwich was $1 more, the price of Paul’s sandwich was x + 1 dollars. Thus, the total cost of the sandwiches was 2x + 1 dollars. Since this cost was split evenly, Ken and Paul each paid 2x + 1 _ 2 = x + 0.5 dollars plus a 20% tip. After adding the 20% tip, each of them paid ( x + 0.5) + 0.2( x + 0.5) = 1.2(x + 0.5) = 1.2x + 0.6 dollars. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. These expressions do not model the given context. They may be the result of errors in setting up the expression or of calculation errors. QUESTION 13. Choice B is correct. One can find the intersection points of the two graphs by setting the functions f (x ) and g (x ) equal to one another and then solving for x. This yields 8 x 2 − 2 = −8 x 2 + 2. Adding 8 x 2 and 2 to each side of the equation gives 16 x 2 = 4. Then dividing each side by 16 gives x 2 = 1 _ 4 , a nd then taking the square root of each side gives x = ± 1 _ 2 . From the graph, the value of k is the x -coordinate of the point of intersection on the positive x -axis. Therefore, k = 1 _ 2 . Alternatively, since ( k, 0 ) lies on the graph of both f and g, it follows that f ( k ) = g (k ) = 0. Thus, evaluating f (x ) = 8 x 2 − 2 at x = k gives 0 = 8 k 2 − 2. Adding 2 to each side yields 2 = 8 k 2 and then dividing each side by 8 gives 1 _ 4 = k 2 . Taking the square root of each side then gives k = ± 1 _ 2 . F rom the graph, k is positive, so k = 1 _ 2 . Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors in solving for x or k. QUESTION 14. Choice A is correct. To rewrite 8 − i _ 3 − 2i in t he standard form a + bi , multiply the numerator and denominator of 8 − i _ 3 − 2i b y the conjugate, 3 + 2i. This gives ( 8 − i _ 3 − 2i ) ( 3 + 2 i _ 3 + 2i )= 24 + 16 i − 3i + (−i )(2i ) __ 3 2 − (2i) 2 . Since i 2 = −1, this last fraction

27can be rewritten as 24 + 16 i − 3i + 2 __ 9 − (−4) = 26 + 13 i _ 13 , which simplifies to 2 + i . Therefore, when 8 − i _ 3 − 2i i s rewritten in the standard form a + bi, the value of a is 2. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in sym- bolic manipulation. For example, choice B could be the result of mistakenly rewriting 8 − i _ 3 − 2i as 8 _ 3 + 1 _ 2 i . QUESTION 15. Choice B is correct. The given quadratic equation can be rewritten as 2 x 2 − kx − 4p = 0. Applying the quadratic formula, −b ± √ _ b 2 − 4 ac __ 2a , to this equa- tion with a = 2, b = −k, and c = −4p gives the solutions k _ 4 ± √ _ k 2 + 32p _ 4 . Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in applying the quadratic formula. QUESTION 16. The correct answer is 9. Since the three shelves of the triangular shelf sys- tem are parallel, the three triangles in the figure are similar. Since the shelves divide the left side of the largest triangle in the ratio 2 to 3 to 1, the similarity ratios of the triangles are as follows. „ Smallest to middle: 2 to 5 „ Smallest to largest: 2 to 6, or 1 to 3 „ Middle to largest: 5 to 6 The height of the largest shampoo bottle that can stand upright on the mid- dle shelf is equal to the height of the middle shelf. The height of the entire triangular shelf system is 18 inches. This is the height of the largest triangle. The height of the middle shelf is the height of the middle triangle minus the height of the smallest triangle. Since the similarity ratio of the mid- dle triangle to the largest triangle is 5 to 6, the height of the middle shelf is 5 _ 6 (18) = 15 in ches. Since the similarity ratio of the smallest triangle to the largest triangle is 1 to 3, the height of the middle shelf is 1 _ 3 (18) = 6 in ches. Therefore, the height of the middle shelf is 9 inches. QUESTION 17. The correct answer is .6 or 3 _ 5 . The angles marked x° and y° are acute angles in a right triangle. Thus, they are complementary angles. By the complementary angle relationship between sine and cosine, it follows that sin(x°) = cos(y°). Therefore, the cosine of y° is .6. Either .6 or the equivalent fraction 3 _ 5 may be gridded as the correct answer.

28Alternatively, since the sine of x° is .6, the ratio of the side opposite the x° angle to the hypotenuse is .6. The side opposite the x° angle is the side adja- cent to the y° angle. Thus, the ratio of the side adjacent to the y° angle to the hypotenuse, which is equal to the cosine of y°, is equal to .6. QUESTION 18. The correct answer is 5 . The four-term polynomial expression can be fac- tored completely, by grouping, as follows: ( x 3 − 5 x 2 ) + ( 2 x − 10 ) = 0 x 2 ( x − 5 ) + 2 ( x − 5 ) = 0 ( x − 5 ) ( x 2 + 2 ) = 0 By the zero product property, set each factor of the polynomial equal to 0 and solve each resulting equation for x . This gives x = 5 or x = ±i √ _ 2 , respec - tively. Because the question asks for the real value of x that satisfies the equa- tion, the correct answer is 5. QUESTION 19. The correct answer is 0. Multiplying each side of −3x + 4y = 20 by 2 gives −6x + 8y = 40. Adding each side of −6x + 8y = 40 to the corresponding side of 6x + 3y = 15 gives 11y = 55, or y = 5. Finally, substituting 5 for y in 6 x + 3y = 15 gives 6x + 3(5) = 15, or x = 0. QUESTION 20. The correct answer is 25. In the mesosphere, an increase of 10 kilome- ters in the distance above Earth results in a decrease in the temperature by k ° Celsius where k is a constant. Thus, the temperature in the mesosphere is linearly dependent on the distance above Earth. Using the values provided and the slope formula, one can calculate the unit rate of change for the tem - perature in the mesosphere to be −80 − (−5) _ 80 − 50 = −75_ 30 = −2.5 _ 1 . The slope indi- cates that, within the mesosphere, if the distance above Earth increases by 1 kilometer, the temperature decreases by 2.5° Celsius. Therefore, if the dis- tance above Earth increases by ( 1 × 10 ) = 10 kilometers, the temperature will decrease by ( 2.5 × 10 ) = 25° Celsius. Thus, the value of k is 25. Section 4: Math Test — Calculator QUESTION 1. Choice B is correct. Let m be the number of movies Jill rented online during the month. Since the monthly membership fee is $9.80 and there is an addi- tional fee of $1.50 to rent each movie online, the total of the membership fee and the movie rental fees, in dollars, can be written as 9.80 + 1.50m . Since

29the total of these fees for the month was $12.80, the equation 9.80 + 1.50m = 12.80 must be true. Subtracting 9.80 from each side and then dividing each side by 1.50 yields m = 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in setting up or solving the equation that represents the context. QUESTION 2. Choice C is correct. Donald believes he can increase his typing speed by 5 words per minute each month. Therefore, in m months, he believes he can increase his typing speed by 5 m words per minute. Because he is cur - rently able to type at a speed of 180 words per minute, he believes that in m months, he will be able to increase his typing speed to 180 = 5 m words per minute. Choice A is incorrect because the expression indicates that Donald currently types 5 words per minute and will increase his typing speed by 180 words per minute each month. Choice B is incorrect because the expression indi- cates that Donald currently types 225 words per minute, not 180 words per minute. Choice D is incorrect because the expression indicates that Donald will decrease, not increase, his typing speed by 5 words per minute each month. QUESTION 3. Choice C is correct. Because there are 16 ounces in 1 pound, a 3-pound pizza weighs 3 × 16 = 48 ounces. One half of the pizza weighs 1 _ 2 × 48 = 24 o unces, and one-third of the half weighs 1 _ 3 × 24 = 8 o unces. Alternatively, since 1 _ 2 × 1 _ 3 = 1 _ 6 , c utting the pizza into halves and then into thirds results in a pizza that is cut into sixths. Therefore, each slice of the 48-ounce pizza weighs 1 _ 6 × 48 = 8 o unces. Choice A is incorrect and is the result of cutting each half into sixths rather than thirds. Choice B is incorrect and is the result of cutting each half into fourths rather than thirds. Choice D is incorrect and is the result of cutting the whole pizza into thirds. QUESTION 4. Choice B is correct. Because Nick surveyed a random sample of the fresh- man class, his sample was representative of the entire freshman class. Thus, the percent of students in the entire freshman class expected to prefer the Fall Festival in October is appropriately estimated by the percent of students who preferred it in the sample, 25.6%. Thus, of the 225 students in the fresh- man class, approximately 225 × 0.256 = 57.6 students would be expected to prefer having the Fall Festival in October. Of the choices given, this is closest to 60.

30Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. These choices may be the result of misap- plying the concept of percent or of calculation errors. QUESTION 5. Choice B is correct. The density of an object is equal to the mass of the object divided by the volume of the object, which can be expressed as density = mas s _ volume . Th us, if an object has a density of 3 grams per milliliter and a mass of 24 grams, the equation becomes 3 grams/milliliter = 24 g rams _ volume . This can be rewritten as volume = 24 g rams __ 3 grams/milliliter = 8 mi lliliters. Choice A is incorrect and be may be the result of confusing the density and the volume and setting up the density equation as 24 = 3 _ volume . C hoice C is incorrect and may be the result of a conceptual error that leads to subtract- ing 3 from 24. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result of confusing the mass and the volume and setting up the density equation as 24 = v olume _ 3 . QUESTION 6. Choice A is correct. Let a be the number of hours Angelica worked last week. Since Raul worked 11 more hours than Angelica, Raul worked a + 11 hours last week. Since they worked a combined total of 59 hours, the equa- tion a + (a + 11) = 59 must hold. This equation can be simplified to 2a + 11 = 59, or 2 a = 48. Therefore, a = 24, and Angelica worked 24 hours last week. Choice B is incorrect because it is the number of hours Raul worked last week. Choice C is incorrect. If Angelica worked 40 hours and Raul worked 11 hours more, Raul would have worked 51 hours, and the combined total number of hours they worked would be 91, not 59. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result of solving the equation a + 11 = 59 rather than a + (a + 11) = 59. QUESTION 7. Choice A is correct. According to the table, of the 50 movies with the great- est ticket sales in 2012, 4 are comedy movies with a PG-13 rating. Therefore, the proportion of the 50 movies with the greatest ticket sales in 2012 that are comedy movies with a PG-13 rating is 4 _ 50 , o r equivalently, 2 _ 25 . Choice B is incorrect; 9 _ 50 i s the proportion of the 50 movies with the great- est ticket sales in 2012 that are comedy movies, regardless of rating. Choice C is incorrect; 2 _ 11 = 4 _ 22 i s the proportion of movies with a PG-13 rating that are comedy movies. Choice D is incorrect; 11 _ 25 = 22 _ 50 i s the proportion of the 50 movies with the greatest ticket sales in 2012 that have a rating of PG-13.

31QUESTION 8. Choice D is correct. The quadrants of the xy-plane are defined as follows: Quadrant I is above the x -axis and to the right of the y -axis; Quadrant II is above the x -axis and to the left of the y-axis; Quadrant III is below the x-axis and to the left of the y -axis; and Quadrant IV is below the x -axis and to the right of the y -axis. It is possible for line  to pass through Quadrants II, III, and IV, but not Quadrant I, only if line  has negative x- and y -intercepts. This implies that line  has a negative slope, since between the negative x -intercept and the negative y -intercept the value of x increases (from nega- tive to zero) and the value of y decreases (from zero to negative); so the quo- tient of the change in y over the change in x, that is, the slope of line  , must be negative. Choice A is incorrect because a line with an undefined slope is a vertical line, and if a vertical line passes through Quadrant IV, it must pass through Quadrant I as well. Choice B is incorrect because a line with a slope of zero is a horizontal line and, if a horizontal line passes through Quadrant II, it must pass through Quadrant I as well. Choice C is incorrect because if a line with a positive slope passes through Quadrant IV, it must pass through Quadrant I as well. QUESTION 9. Choice B is correct. According to the table, in 2012 there was a total of 14,766 + 47,896 = 62,662 registered voters between 18 and 44 years old, and 3,453 + 11,237 = 14,690 of them were from the Midwest region. Therefore, the probability that a randomly chosen registered voter who was between 18 and 44 years old in 2012 was from Midwest region is 14,690 _ 62,662 ≈ 0.234. Of t he given choices, 0.25 is closest to this value. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in selecting the correct proportion or in calculating the correct value. QUESTION 10. Choice A is correct. According to the graph, the animal with the longest ges- tation period (60 days) has a life expectancy of 3 years. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. All the animals that have a life expectancy of 4, 8, or 10 years have a gestation period that is shorter than 60 days, which is the longest gestation period. QUESTION 11. Choice A is correct. The ratio of life expectancy to gestation period for the animal represented by point A is approximately 7 years _ 23 days , or about

320.3 years/day, which is greater than the ratio for the animals represented by the other labeled points (the ratios for points B , C , and D , in units of years of life expectancy per day of gestation, are approximately 8 _ 44 , 8 _ 51 , and 10 _ 51 respectively, each of which is less than 0.2 years/day). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in calculat- ing the ratio or in reading the graph. QUESTION 12. Choice C is correct. All of the given choices are polynomials. If the graph of a polynomial function f in the xy-plane has an x -intercept at b, then (x − b) must be a factor of f(x). Since −3, −1, and 1 are each x-intercepts of the graph of f, it follows that (x + 3), (x +1), and (x − 1) must each be a factor of f (x ). The factored polynomial function in choice C is the only polynomial given with these 3 factors. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not contain all three fac- tors that must exist if the graph of the polynomial function f has x-intercepts at −3, −1, and 1. QUESTION 13. Choice C is correct. The mosquito population starts at 100 in week 0 and then is multiplied by a factor of 10 every 5 weeks. Thus, if P (t) is the mos- quito population after t weeks, then based on the table, P (t) = 100 ( 10 ) t _ 5 , w hich indicates an exponential growth relationship. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of an incorrect interpretation of the relationship or errors in modeling the relationship. QUESTION 14. Choice D is correct. According to the given formula, the amount of money generated for a year at 5% interest, compounded monthly, is 1,000 ( 1 + 5 _ 1,200 ) 12 , whereas the amount of money generated at 3% inter - est, compounded monthly, is 1,000 ( 1 + 3 _ 1,200 ) 12 . Therefore, the difference between these two amounts, 1,000 ( 1 + 5 _ 1,200 ) 12 − 1,000 ( 1 + 3 _ 1,200 ) 12 , shows h ow much additional money is generated at an interest rate of 5% than at an interest rate of 3%. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may be the result of misinterpreting the given formula. For example, the expression in choice C gives how many times as much money, not how much additional money, is generated at an interest rate of 5% than at an interest rate of 3%.

33QUESTION 15. Choice B is correct. The graph of y = a x b , where a is positive and b is nega- tive, has a positive y -intercept and rapidly decreases (in particular, decreases at a faster rate than a linear function) toward the x -axis as x increases. Of the scatterplots shown, only the one in choice B would be appropriately mod- eled by such a function. Choice A is incorrect, as this scatterplot is appropriately modeled by a linear function. Choice C is incorrect, as this scatterplot is appropriately modeled by an increasing function. Choice D is incorrect, as this scatterplot shows no clear relationship between x and y. QUESTION 16. Choice A is correct. The total cost y , in dollars, of buying the materials and renting the tools for x days from Store A and Store B is found by substituting the respective values for these stores from the table into the given equation, y = M + (W + K)x , as shown below. Store A: y = 750 + (15 + 65)x = 750 + 80x S tore B: y = 600 + (25 + 80)x = 600 + 105x Thus, the number of days, x, for which the total cost of buying the materials and renting the tools from Store B is less than or equal to the total cost of buying the materials and renting the tools from Store A can be found by solv- ing the inequality 600 + 105x ≤ 750 + 70x. Subtracting 80x and 600 from each side of 600 + 105x ≤ 750 + 70x and combining like terms yields 25x ≤ 150. Dividing each side of 25x ≤ 150 by 25 yields x ≤ 6. Choice B is incorrect. The inequality x ≥ 6 is the number of days for which the total cost of buying the materials and renting the tools from Store B is greater than or equal to the total cost of buying the materials and renting the tools from Store A. Choices C and D are incorrect and may be the result of an error in setting up or simplifying the inequality. QUESTION 17. Choice D is correct. The total cost, y , of buying the materials and renting the tools in terms of the number of days, x , is given as y = M + (W + K)x . If this relationship is graphed in the xy-plane, the slope of the graph is equal to W + K, which is the daily rental cost of the wheelbarrow plus the daily rental cost of the concrete mixer, that is, the total daily rental costs of the tools. Choice A is incorrect because the total cost of the project is y . Choice B is incorrect because the total cost of the materials is M , which is the y-intercept of the graph of y = M + (W + K)x . Choice C is incorrect because the total daily cost of the project is the total cost of the project divided by the total number of days the project took and, since materials cost more than 0 dollars, this is not the same as the total daily rental costs.

34QUESTION 18. Choice C is correct. The volume V of a right circular cylinder is given by the formula V = π r 2 h, where r is the base radius of the cylinder and h is the height of the cylinder. Since each glass has an internal diameter of 3 inches, each glass has a base radius of 3 _ 2 in ches. Since the height of the milk in each glass is 6 inches, the volume of milk in each glass is V = π ( 3 _ 2 ) 2 ( 6 ) ≈ 42.41 c ubic inches. The total number of glasses Jim can pour from 1 gallon is equal to number of cubic inches in 1 gallon number of cubic inches in 1 glass = 231 _ 42.41 , w hich is approximately 5.45 glasses. Since the question asks for the largest number of full glasses Jim can pour, the number of glasses needs to be rounded down to 5. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of conceptual errors or calculation errors. For example, choice D is incorrect because even though Jim can pour more than 5 full glasses, he will not have enough milk to pour a full 6th glass. QUESTION 19. Choice A is correct. Adding 4 to each side of the inequality 3p − 2 ≥ 1 yields the inequality 3p + 2 ≥ 5. Therefore, the least possible value of 3p + 2 is 5. Choice B is incorrect because it gives the least possible value of 3p , not of 3 p + 2. Choice C is incorrect. If the least possible value of 3p + 2 were 2, then it would follow that 3p + 2 ≥ 2. Subtracting 4 from each side of this inequal- ity would yield 3p − 2 ≥ −2. This contradicts the given inequality, 3p − 2 ≥ 1. Therefore, the least possible value of 3p + 2 cannot be 2. Choice D is incor- rect because it gives the least possible value of p , not of 3p +2. QUESTION 20. Choice C is correct. Since the biomass of the lake doubles each year, the bio- mass starts at a positive value and then increases exponentially over time. Of the graphs shown, only the graph in choice C is of an increasing exponential function. Choice A is incorrect because the biomass of the lake must start at a positive value, not zero. Furthermore, this graph shows linear growth, not exponen- tial growth. Choice B is incorrect because the biomass of the lake must start at a positive value, not zero. Furthermore, this graph has vertical segments and is not a function. Choice D is incorrect because the biomass of the lake does not remain the same over time. QUESTION 21. Choice C is correct. The exact coordinates of the scatterplot in the xy-plane cannot be read from the bar graph provided. However, for a data point to be

35above the line y = x, the value of y must be greater than the value of x . That is, the consumption in 2010 must be greater than the consumption in 2000. This occurs for 3 types of energy sources shown in the bar graph: biofuels, geothermal, and wind. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of a conceptual error in presenting the data shown in a scatterplot. For example, choice B is incorrect because there are 2 data points in the scatterplot that lie below the line y = x. QUESTION 22. Choice B is correct. Reading the graph, the amount of wood power used in 2000 was 2.25 quadrillion BTUs and the amount used in 2010 was 2.00 quadrillion BTUs. To find the percent decrease, find the difference between the two numbers, divide by the original value, and then multiply by 100: 2.25 − 2.00 _ 2.25 × 100 = 0.25 _ 2.25 × 100 ≈ 11.1 p ercent. Of the choices given, 11% is closest to the percent decrease in the consumption of wood power from 2000 to 2010. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in reading the bar graph or in calculating the percent decrease. QUESTION 23. Choice B is correct. The standard deviation is a measure of how far the data set values are from the mean. In the data set for City A, the large majority of the data are in three of the five possible values, which are the three val- ues closest to the mean. In the data set for City B, the data are more spread out, with many values at the minimum and maximum values. Therefore, by observation, the data for City B have a larger standard deviation. Alternatively, one can calculate the mean and visually inspect the difference between the data values and the mean. For City A the mean is 1,655 _ 21 ≈ 78.8, and for City B the mean is 1,637 _ 21 ≈ 78.0. Th e data for City A are closely clus- tered near 79, which indicates a small standard deviation. The data for City B are spread out away from 78, which indicates a larger standard deviation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of misconceptions about the standard deviation. QUESTION 24. Choice C is correct. Since segment AB is a diameter of the circle, it follows that arc    ADB i s a semicircle. Thus, the circumference of the circle is twice the length of arc    ADB which is 2(8π) = 16π. Since the circumference of a cir - cle is 2π times the radius of the circle, the radius of this circle is 16π divided by 2 π, which is equal to 8.

36Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of losing track of factors of 2 or of solving for the diameter of the circle instead of the radius. For example, choice D is the diameter of the circle. QUESTION 25. Choice B is correct. In f( x ), factoring out the greatest common factor, 2x , yields f ( x ) = 2x ( x 2 + 3x + 2 ) . It is given that g (x ) = x 2 + 3x + 2, so using substitution, f ( x ) can be rewritten as f (x ) = 2x ∙ g(x ). In the equation p (x ) = f (x ) + 3g (x ), sub- stituting 2 x ∙ g (x ) for f (x ) yields p (x ) = 2x ∙ g(x ) + 3 ∙ g (x ). In p (x ), factoring out the greatest common factor, g (x ), yields p (x ) = ( g ( x ) ) ( 2 x + 3 ) . Because 2 x + 3 is a factor of p (x ), it follows that p (x ) is divisible by 2x + 3. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 2x + 3 is not a factor of the poly- nomials h(x ), r(x ), or s (x ). Using the substitution f (x ) = 2x ∙ g(x ), and factor - ing further, h (x ), r(x ), and s (x ) can be rewritten as follows: h (x ) = (x + 1)(x + 2)(2x + 1) r (x ) = (x + 1)(x + 2)(4x + 3) s ( x ) = 2 (x + 1)(x + 2)(3x + 1) Because 2 x + 3 is not a factor of h (x ), r(x ), or s (x ), it follows that h (x ), r(x ), and s( x ) are not divisible by 2x + 3. QUESTION 26. Choice C is correct. If −y < x < y, the value of x is either between −y and 0 or between 0 and y , so statement I, |x| < y is true. It is possible that the value of x is greater than zero, but x could be negative. For example, a counter - example to statement II, x > 0, is x = −2 and y = 3, yielding −3 < −2 < 3, so the given condition is satisfied. Statement III must be true since −y < x < y implies that −y < y, so y must be greater than 0. Therefore, statements I and III are the only statements that must be true. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each of these choices either omits a statement that must be true or includes a statement that could be false. QUESTION 27. Choice D is correct. To interpret what the number 61 in the equation of the line of best fit represents, one must first understand what the data in the scatterplot represent. Each of the points in the scatterplot represents a large US city, graphed according to its population density (along the horizontal axis) and its relative housing cost (along the vertical axis). The line of best fit for this data represents the expected relative housing cost for a certain population density, based on the data points in the graph. Thus, one might say, on average, a city of population density x is expected to have a relative

37housing cost of y %, where y = 0.0125x + 61. The number 61 in the equation represents the y -intercept of the line of best fit, in that when the population density, x, is 0, there is an expected relative housing cost of 61%. This might not make the best sense within the context of the problem, in that when the population density is 0, the population is 0, so there probably wouldn’t be any housing costs. However, it could be interpreted that for cities with low population densities, housing costs were likely around or above 61% (since below 61% would be for cities with negative population densities, which is impossible). Choice A is incorrect because it interprets the values of the vertical axis as dollars and not percentages. Choice B is incorrect because the lowest hous- ing cost is about 61% of the national average, not 61% of the highest housing cost. Choice C is incorrect because one cannot absolutely assert that no city with a low population density had housing costs below 61% of the national average, as the model shows that it is unlikely, but not impossible. QUESTION 28. Choice D is correct. The minimum value of a quadratic function appears as a constant in the vertex form of its equation, which can be found from the standard form by completing the square. Rewriting f( x ) = (x + 6)(x − 4) in standard form gives f (x ) = x 2 + 2x − 24. Since the coefficient of the lin ear term is 2, the equation for f (x ) can be rewritten in terms of (x + 1) 2 as follows: f(x) = x 2 + 2x − 24 = (x 2 + 2x + 1) − 1 − 24 = (x + 1) 2 − 25 Since the square of a real number is always nonnegative, the vertex form f( x ) = (x + 1) 2 − 25 shows that the minimum value of f is −25 (and occurs at x = −1). Therefore, this equivalent form of f shows the minimum value of f as a constant. Choices A and C are incorrect because they are not equivalent to the given equation for f . Choice B is incorrect because the minimum value of f , which is −25, does not appear as a constant or a coefficient. QUESTION 29. Choice B is correct. Since the average of 2 numbers is the sum of the 2 n umbers divided by 2, the equations x = m + 9 _ 2 , y = 2 m + 1 5 _ 2 a nd z = 3 m + 18 _ 2 are true. The average of x, y, and z is given by x + y + z_ 3 . S ubstituting the p receding expressions in m for each variable gives m + 9 _ 2 + 2m + 15 _ 2 + 3m + 18 _ 2 ___ 3 . This fraction can be simplified to 6 m + 42 _ 6 , or m + 7.

38Choices A, C, and D ar e incorrect and may be the result of conceptual errors or calculation errors. For example, choice D is the sum of x , y , and z , not the average. QUESTION 30. Choice D is correct. The equation f (x ) = k gives the solutions to the system of equations y = f(x ) = x 3 − x 2 − x − 11 _ 4 and y = k. A real solution of a system of two equations corresponds to a point of intersection of the graphs of the two equations in the xy-plane. The graph of y = k is a horizontal line that contains the point (0, k ). Thus, the line with equation y = −3 is a horizontal line that intersects the graph of the cubic equation three times, and it follows that the equation f (x ) = −3 has three real solutions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the graphs of the corresponding equations are horizontal lines that do not intersect the graph of the cubic equation three times. QUESTION 31. The correct answer is 1160. The pool contains 600 gallons of water before the hose is turned on, and water flows from the hose into the pool at a rate of 8 gallons per minute. Thus, the number of gallons of water in the pool m minutes after the hose is turned on is given by the expression 600 + 8m . Therefore, after 70 minutes, there will be 600 + 8(70) = 1160 gallons of water in the pool. QUESTION 32. The correct answer is 1_ 2 or .5. The equation that models the normal systolic blood pressure, in millimeters of mercury, for a male x years old, P = x + 220 _ 2 , c an be rewritten as P = 1 _ 2 x + 110. For each increase of 1 year in age, the value of x increases by 1; hence, P becomes 1 _ 2 ( x + 1) + 110 = ( 1 _ 2 x + 110 )+ 1 _ 2 . That is, P increases by 1 _ 2 millimeter of mercury. Either the fraction 1 _ 2 o r its decimal equivalent, .5, may be gridded as the correct answer. QUESTION 33. The correct answer is 4.55. Since there are 16 Roman digits in a Roman pes, 75 digits is equal to 75 _ 16 p es. Since 1 pes is equal to 11.65 inches, 75 _ 16 p es is equal to 75 _ 16 (1 1.65) inches. Since 12 inches is equal to 1 foot, 75 _ 16 (11.65) inches is equal to 75 _ 16 (11.65) ( 1 _ 12 ) 4.55078125 f eet. Therefore, 75 digits is equal to 75 _ 16 (11.65) ( 1 _ 12 ) = 4.55078125 f eet. Rounded to the nearest hundredth of a foot, 75 Roman digits is equal to 4.55 feet.

39QUESTION 34. The correct answer is 150. In the study, 240 male and 160 plus another 100 female bats have been tagged, so that 500 bats have been tagged alto- gether. If x more male bats must be tagged for 3 _ 5 o f the total number of bats to be male, the proportion m ale bats _ total bats = 240 + x _ 500 + x = 3 _ 5 m ust be true. Multiplying each side of 240 + x _ 500 + x = 3 _ 5 b y 5(500 + x ) gives 5(240 + x ) = 3(500 + x), which simplifies to 1200 + 5x = 1500 + 3x. Therefore, x = 150, and 150 more male bats must be tagged; this will bring the total to 390 male bats out of 650 bats, which is equal to 3 _ 5 . QUESTION 35. The correct answer is 2.25 or 9 _ 4 . Let q s be the dynamic pressure of the slower fluid moving with velocity v s, and let q f be the dynamic pressure of the faster fluid moving with velocity v f . Then v f = 1.5v s . G iven the equation q = 1 __ 2 nv 2, substituting the dynamic pressure and v elocity of the faster fluid gives q f = 1 __ 2 nv f 2. Since v f = 1.5v s, the expression 1.5v s can be substituted for v f in this equation, giving q f = 1 _ 2 n (1.5 v s)2. This can be rewrit - ten as q f = (2.25) 1 _ 2 nv s2 = (2.25)q s. Therefore, the ratio of the dynamic pres- sure of the faster fluid is qf _ qs = 2.25 q s _ qs = 2.25. Ei ther 2.25 or the equivalent improper fraction 9 _ 4 may be gridded as the correct answer. QUESTION 36. The correct answer is 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, or 34. Since the radius of the cir - cle is 10, its circumference is 20π . The full circumference of a circle is 360°. Thus, an arc of length s on the circle corresponds to a central angle of x °, where x _ 360 = 2 _ 20π , o r x = 360 _ 20π s . Since 5 < s < 6, it follows that 360 _ 20π (5) < x < 360 _ 20π (6), w hich becomes, to the nearest tenth, 28.6 < x < 34.4. Therefore, the possible integer values of x are 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34. Any one of these numbers may be gridded as the correct answer.

40QUESTION 37. The correct answer is .72. According to the analyst’s estimate, the value V , in dollars, of the stock will decrease by 28% each week for t weeks, where t = 1, 2, or 3, with its value being given by the formula V = 360(r) t. This equation is an example of exponential decay. A stock losing 28% of its value each week is the same as the stock’s value decreasing to 72% of its value from the previous week, since V − (.28)V = (.72)V . Using this information, after 1 week the value, in dollars, of the stock will be V = 360(.72); after 2 weeks the value of the stock will be V = 360(.72)(.72) = 360(.72) 2; and after 3 weeks the value of the stock will be V = 360(.72)(.72)(.72) = 360(.72) 3. For all of the values of t in question, namely t = 1, 2, and 3, the equation V = 360(.72) t is true. Therefore, the analyst should use .72 as the value of r . QUESTION 38. The correct answer is 134. The analyst’s prediction is that the stock will lose 28 percent of its value for each of the next three weeks. Thus, the predicted value of the stock after 1 week is $360 − (0.28)$360 = $259.20; after 2 weeks, $259.20 − (0.28)$259.20 ≈ $186.62; and after 3 weeks, $186.62 − (0.28)$186.62 ≈ $134.37. Therefore, to the nearest dollar, the stock analyst believes the stock will be worth 134 dollars after three weeks.